Most 1000+ Computer Question and Answer for Any Exam & Interview| Computer Question |

CONTENTS
Computer : Fundamental
➨ Computer Awareness…………………………………………………………… 3–13
➨ Computer Security……………………………………………………………… 14–16
Computer : Application
➨ Microsoft Windows Operating System………………………………………… 19–19
➨ Microsoft Windows Keyboard Shortcuts……………………………………… 20–23
➨ Microsoft Office…………………………………………………………..…… 24–25
➨ Microsoft Word………………………………………………………………… 26–28
➨ Microsoft Excel………………………………………………………………… 29–42
➨ Microsoft PowerPoint…………………………….………….………………… 43–54
➨ Microsoft Access……………………………………………………………… 55–60
Computer : Advance
➨ Operating System……………………………………………….……………… 63–84
➨ Software Engineering…………………………………………………………… 85–110
➨ Data Structures and Algorithms………………………………………………… 111–114
➨ Data Mining and Data Ware House………………………………………….… 115–124
➨ Electronics Data Processing…………………………………………………… 125–127
➨ Parallel Computing………………………………………………..…………… 128–131
➨ Window Programming…………………………………………….…………… 132–135
➨ Data Base Management System (DBMS)……………………………………… 136–144
COMPUTER AWARENESS

1. The following device allows the user to add
   external components to a computer system
   (A) Storage devices
   (B) Keyboards
   (C) Ports/ system boards
   (D) Diskettes
2. Software that manages data in more than
   one file at a time and these files are treated
   as tables with rows and columns rather than
   as lists of records is
   (A) Relational Data Base Management
   Package
   (B) Data Base Management Package
   (C) Documentation Package
   (D) None of these
3. A program that remains in the memory while
   other programs are executing
   (A) Resident Program
   (B) Non-Resident Program
   (C) Permanent Program
   (D) None of these
4. The total time elapsed between submission
   of command and data to a computer and
   getting the result of computation is the
   (A) Access time (B) Response time
   (C) Entrance time (D) None of these
5. An automatic machine that is made to
   perform routine human tasks is
   (A) Computer (B) Robot
   (C) Tanker (D) None of these
6. The time required to complete a single,
   continuous execution of an object program
   is called
   (A) Run time (B) Access time
   (C) Random time (D) Response time
7. Computer network is a
   (A) A distributed data processing system
   (B) Multiple computers are linked together
   for the purpose of data communication
   and resource sharing
   (C) Both A & B are false
   (D) Both A & B are true
8. A process of collecting, organizing, storing
   and otherwise maintaining a complete
   historical record of programs and other
   documents used or prepared during the
   different phases of the system is called
   (A) Documentation (B) Document reader
   (C) Data process (D) None of these
9. What are connector symbol?
   (A) They are used in a flowchart
   (B) It represents a junction in a flow line
   (C) Often used to transfer flow between
   different pages of a lengthy chart
   (D) All the above
10. Console is
    (A) A device that enables human operators
    to communicate with the computer
    (B) A device that enables human operators
    not to communicate with the computer
    (C) Communication between computers
    (D) None of these
11. Constant is a value written into a program
    instruction
    (A) that does not change during the
    execution of the program
    (B) that can change during the execution of
    the program
    (C) that can vary during the execution of the
    program
    (D) none of these
12. A removable direct-access storage medium
    containing multiple magnetic disks mounted
    vertically on a single-shaft is referred as
    (A) Tape pack (B) Disk pack
    (C) Cylinder (D) None of these
13. Diskette is a
    (A) A low-cost, thin flexible magnetic disk
    storage device
    (B) High volume storage device
    (C) Primary storage device
    (D) None of these
    4 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
14. An optical input device that is used to read
    documents printed in a special type font is
    known as
    (A) Document reader (B) Documentation
    (C) Printer (D) None of these
15. For checking spelling one uses
    (A) Dictionary Disk (B) Index disk
    (C) Directory (D) None of these
16. Process of finding/ correcting program errors
    is
    (A) Bugs (B) Debugging
    (C) Hacking (D) Cracking
17. Diagnostic routines is a
    (A) Programs used to print error messages
    (B) Indicates system problems and
    improper program instructions.
    (C) Both A & B are true
    (D) None of these
18. The term DBMS is referred to
    (A) Data Base Management system
    (B) The software used for the management,
    maintenance and retrieval of the data
    stored in a data base
    (C) Both A & B are true
    (D) None of these
19. The speed at which data is transferred from
    the main memory to another medium on
    which data are recorded is referred as
    (A) Data transfer rate (B) Byte
    (C) Buds (D) None of these
20. The time period during which a computer is
    malfunctioning or not operating correctly due
    to machine failures is referred as
    (A) Downtime (B) Uptime
    (C) Runtime (D) None of these
21. Automatic execution of high-priority computer
    programs that have been designed to pre￾empt the use of computer resources is
    referred as
    (A) Foreground processing
    (B) background processing
    (C) black processing
    (D) white processing
22. Digitizer is an input device
    (A) Used to convert graphic and pictorial
    data into binary inputs for a digital
    computer
    (B) Used to convert graphic and pictorial
    data into analog inputs for a digital
    computer.
    (C) Used for debugging
    (D) None of these
23. A storage devices where the access time is
    effectively independent of the location of the
    data is referred as
    (A) Direct access (B) Secondary storage
    (C) Primary storage(D) None of these
24. A pictorial representation that uses pre￾defined symbols to describe either the logic
    of a computer program or the data flow and
    processing steps of a system is referred as
    (A) Flowchart (B) Algorithm
    (C) Program (D) None of these
25. A flat, circular plate coated with a magnetic
    material on which data can be stored by
    magnetization of portions of the flat surface
    is
    (A) Disk (B) Tape
    (C) Pen drive (D) None of these
26. Disk operating system is referred for
    (A) DOS
    (B) Operating system which contains the
    disk-oriented commands and uses disk
    devices for permanent storage
    (C) Both A & B
    (D) None of these
27. Document reader is
    (A) An optical input device used to read
    documents
    (B) A device that arrange the documents
    (C) A device that is used to edit document
    (D) None of these
28. One or more identifying lines printed at the
    bottom of a page are referred as
    (A) Header (B) Footer
    (C) Index (D) None of these
29. FORTRAN is
    (A) Formula Translation
    (B) A high-level mathematically oriented
    programming language
    (C) Both A & B
    (D) None of these
30. A CPU designed specifically to handle the
    communications processing task with main
    purpose is to off-load communications
    processing task from the host computer so
    that the host computer can be dedicated for
    applications and data processing jobs.
    (A) Backend processor
    (B) Front-end processor
    (C) Node processor
    (D) None of these
    M.C.Qs. on Computer | 5
31. An adder which adds three binary digits and
    outputs a result bit and a carry bit is referred
    as
    (A) Half adder (B) Quarter adder
    (C) Full adder (D) None of these
32. Emulator is a program that
    (A) Permits one computer to execute the
    machine-language instructions of
    another computer of a different make
    (B) Which is not broken down into smaller
    units
    (C) Permits one computer to execute the
    machine-language instructions of
    another computer of same make.
    (D) None of these
33. Emulator is a program that
    (A) Permits one computer to execute the
    machine-language instructions of
    another computer of a different make
    (B) Which is not broken down into smaller
    units
    (C) Permits one computer to execute the
    machine-language instructions of
    another computer of same make.
    (D) None of these
34. EDP is referred to
    (A) Electronic Data Processing
    (B) Data processing through equipment
    that is predominantly electronic such as
    digital computer
    (C) Both A & B
    (D) None of these
35. Internet banking is an example of
    (A) Electronic funds transfer (EFT)
    (B) EDP (Electronic Data Processing )
    (C) EBCDIC
    (D) ASCII
36. EBCDIC is
    (A) 6-bit coding system
    (B) 7-bit coding system
    (C) 8-bit coding system
    (D) 9-bit coding system
37. A data communication facility on which data
    can be transmitted in two directions is
    referred as
    (A) Duplex (B) Simplex
    (C) Triplex (D) None of these
38. Electronic Mail /Message System (EMMS)
    best suits to
    (A) Postal service
    (B) Telephone service
    (C) Telegraph service
    (D) None of these
39. Digital Computer is a computer
    (A) that works with discrete quantities
    (B) that works with analog quantities
    (C) Both A & B
    (D) None of these
40. The subdivision of fields
    (A) always done to give the programmer
    greater flexibility
    (B) dependent on programming language
    used
    (C) never accomplished on fields containing
    numeric data
    (D) all the above
41. The checking operation performed on input
    is called
    (A) validation of data (B) verification of data
    (C) vilification of data (D) control of data
42. A device that attaches to both ends of an
    electrical bus and prevents reflection of
    echoes of signals that reach the end of the
    bus is called
    (A) Terminator (B) Connector
    (C) Processor (D) None of these
43. A device mounted on a communication
    satellite which receives, amplifies and
    retransmits signals’ from earth stations is
    called
    (A) Terminator (B) Connector
    (C) Processor (D) Transponder
44. Technique of using disk space to make
    programs believe that the system contains
    more random access memory (RAM) than
    is actually available is called
    (A) Virtual memory
    (B) Secondary memory
    (C) Primary memory
    (D) None of these
45. A term means that the application software
    is priced separately from the computer
    hardware is called
    (A) Unbundled (B) Bundled
    (C) Utility (D) None of these
46. Following is not the operating system
    (A) UNIX (B) DOS
    (C) WINDOWS (D) BASIC
47. Which of the following is true concerning
    personal computers?
    (A) They have been most successful in the
    home.
    (B) They are user friendly
    (C) No specific programming technique
    required
    (D) All the above.
    6 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
48. While buying a PC system, one should first
    (A) identify hardware components
    (B) define computing needs
    (C) both A and B
    (D) None of these
49. The microcomputers which have the same
    operating characteristics as the IBM
    microcomputers are called
    (A) IBM desk top
    (B) IBM PC
    (C) IBM advanced computers
    (D) None of theses
50. The personal computers are also referred
    as
    (A) desk top micros
    (B) advanced computers
    (C) palmtop computers
    (D) all the above
51. POS data-entry system is used extensively
    by
    (A) banking industry
    (B) grocery industry
    (C) railroad industry
    (D) word-processing industry
52. Primary advantage of key-to-tape data-entry
    systems
    (A) A large percentage of editing can be
    performed at the time of data entry
    (B) Key verification is easily performed
    (C) The tape is reusable
    (D) Keying errors can be detected as they
    occur
53. Maximum character EBCDIC can code
    (A) 8 (B) 16
    (C) 64 (D) 256
54. The hexadecimal number system has a
    base of
    (A) 2 (B) 4
    (C) 8 (D) 16
55. The use of parity bit is for
    (A) coding (B) indexing
    (C) error-detection (D) none of these
56. The following are basic types of record￾access methods
    (A) sequential and random
    (B) direct and immediate
    (C) sequential and indexed
    (D) on-line and real-time
57. Which of the following is input/output device?
    (A) monitors (B) punched cards
    (C) optical scanners (D) all the above
58. The following magazine covers only the IBM
    PC and its compatibles
    (A) Byte (B) PC Magazine
    (C) Personal Computing (D) Interface Age
59. The word size of a microprocessor refers to:
    (A) the number of machine operations
    performed/ second
    (B) the amount of information that can be
    stored / cycle
    (C) the amount of information that can be
    stored in bytes
    (D) none of these
60. The primary memory of a personal computer
    consists
    (A) ROM only
    (B) RAM only
    (C) Both ROM and RAM
    (D) Memory module
61. Microsoft Excel is
    (A) financial planning package
    (B) electronic spreadsheet
    (C) graphics package
    (D) data-base management package
62. All the keys on the IBM PC keyboard repeat
    as long as one holds them down. These
    keys are known as
    (A) typematic keys (B) functional keys
    (C) automatic keys (D) alphabetic keys
63. Distributed data processing configuration
    where all activities passes through a
    centrally located computer is
    (A) ring network
    (B) spider network
    (C) hierarchical network
    (D) data control network
64. Communications device, combines
    transmissions from several devices into on
    line is
    (A) concentrator (B) modifier
    (C) multiplexer (D) full-duplex line
65. Data communications involving telegraph
    lines uses
    (A) simplex lines
    (B) wideband channels
    (C) narrowband channels
    (D) dialed service
66. An advantage of the laser printer respect to
    impact printer is
    (A) it is quieter/ faster
    (B) output is of a high quality
    (C) support wide range of type fonts
    (D) all the above
    M.C.Qs. on Computer | 7
67. Data entry can be performed with all of the
    following except
    (A) OCR / OMR
    (B) COM
    (C) Voice-recognition systems
    (D) MICR
68. Magnetic tape can serve as
    (A) input media
    (B) output media
    (C) secondary-storage media
    (D) all the above
69. The advantages of COM are its_____and__.
    (A) compact size; readability
    (B) compact size; speed
    (C) readability; speed
    (D) compact size; low cost
70. Elementary data item are
    (A) data item which is not broken down into
    smaller units
    (B) data item that can be broken down into
    smaller units
    (C) data item which is not decomposed into
    smaller units
    (D) none of these
71. A semiconductor memory which allows the
    eraser of the information stared in it so that
    new information can be stared in it is referred
    as
    (A) EPROM (B) ROM
    (C) RAM (D) None of these
72. Extended ASCII uses
    (A) 8 bits for coding (B) 9 bits for coding
    (C) 10 bits for coding (D) 11 bits for coding
73. A device used for transmission of images
    scanned at a transmitting point and
    duplicated at a receiving point is
    (A) Facsimile (FAX) (B) Telephone
    (C) Photocopier (D) None of these
74. A data transmission medium made of tiny
    threads of glass or plastic that can transmit
    huge amount of information at the speed of
    light is
    (A) Fiber optic cable (B) Copper cable
    (C) Twisted wire cable (D) None of these
75. A method of using a communication channel
    in which signals can be transmitted between
    a source and a destination in both directions
    simultaneously is called
    (A) Full duplex (B) Half duplex
    (C) Quarter duplex (D) None of these
76. A sequential electronic circuit which can be
    placed in one out of two stable states where
    each state may be used to represent a binary
    digit is stated as
    (A) Integrated circuit (B) Firmware
    (C) Flip-flop (D) None of these
77. A sequence of instruction (software) that is
    substituted for hardware and stored in read￾only memory (ROM) is called
    (A) Integrated circuit (B) Firmware
    (C) Flip-flop (D) None of these
78. Anonymous FTP is the
    (A) Internet file transfer protocol
    (B) Protocol that requires password
    (C) None access files
    (D) None of these
79. EFF sites allows anonymous FTP that
    (A) Do not require a password or access
    (B) Requires password or access
    (C) Is a none access file
    (D) None of these
80. ANSI is
    (A) American National Standards Institute
    (B) A USA based national organization that
    establishes uniform standards in
    several fields of computers.
    (C) Both A & B are true
    (D) None is true
81. APL is
    (A) A high level language for specifying
    complex algorithms.
    (B) A real-time language primarily for
    scientific applications.
    (C) Only A is true
    (D) Both A & B are true
82. The overall design, construction, organiza￾tion and interconnecting of the various
    components of a computer system is
    referred as
    (A) Computer Architecture
    (B) Computer Flow chart
    (C) Computer Algorithm
    (D) None of these
83. Asynchronous communication is
    (A) Communication between independently
    operating units
    (B) Communication between dependent
    operating units
    (C) Communication between independent
    and dependent operating units
    (D) None of these
    8 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
84. Audio response is
    (A) output medium
    (B) produces verbal responses from the
    computer system
    (C) Both A & B true
    (D) None is true
85. Automated Office refers to the merger of
    _ in an office environment.
    (A) Computers (B) office
    (C) telecommunications (D) All the above
86. Auxiliary storage is
    (A) Secondary storage (B) Primary storage
    (C) Processing device (D) None of these
87. Archive is
    (A) Backup storage (B) Forward operation
    (C) Primary storage (D) None of these
88. A branch of computer science that deals with
    computers that possess reasoning,
    learning and thinking capabilities that
    resemble those of human beings is
    recognized as?
    (A) Software engineering
    (B) Artificial intelligence
    (C) Hardware engineering
    (D) None of these
89. ASCII is
    (A) A standard coding system for computers
    (B) Hardware device
    (C) Software
    (D) None of these
90. Following is true for Bandwidth
    (A) The wider the bandwidth of a
    communications system the more data
    it can transmit in a given period of time.
    (B) The narrow the bandwidth of a
    communications system the more data
    it can transmit in a given period of time.
    (C) The wider the bandwidth of a
    communications system the less data
    it can transmit in a given period of time.
    (D) None is true
91. ASCII-8 is
    (A) An extended version of ASCIl-7
    (B) Is a 8-bit code
    (C) Both A & B are true
    (D) Both A & B are false
92. ASCII File is
    (A) document file in the universally
    recognized text format
    (B) Word processor
    (C) System file
    (D) None of these
93. A program that translates mnemonic
    statements into executable instructions is
    referred as
    (A) Software (B) Assembler
    (C) Translator (D) None of these
94. An assembler is a
    (A) Translator (B) Hardware
    (C) Assembly language (D) None of these
95. In a disk system time required for a read/
    write head to move to the track where the
    record to be read or written is stored is
    (A) Access time (B) Random time
    (C) Response time (D) Seek time
96. Computer output which is displayed on the
    screen of a terminal without a permanent
    copy is called
    (A) Soft copy (B) Hard copy
    (C) Hardware (D) None of these
97. A storage device or medium where the
    access time is dependent upon the location
    of the data is called
    (A) Serial access (B) Parallel access
    (C) Null access (D) None of these
98. The set of computer programs, procedures,
    and associated documentation related to
    the effective operation of a computer system
    is referred as
    (A) Software (B) Hardware
    (C) Hardcopy (D) Softcopy
99. An adder in which the bits of the operands
    are added one after another is called
    (A) Serial adder (B) Parallel adder
    (C) Full adder (D) Half adder
100. A method of providing virtual memory
     (A) Segmentation (B) De-fragmentation
     (C) Paging (D) None of these
101. Transmission of data in one direction is
     called
     (A) Simplex (B) Duplex
     (C) Triplex (D) None of these
102. SNOBOL is
     (A) string oriented symbolic language
     (B) high-level language
     (C) both A & B
     (D) None of these
103. Speech recognition is
     (A) Ability to input data directly into a
     computer system by speaking to it
     (B) Ability to output data directly from a
     computer system by speaking.
     (C) Processing of voice in computer systems
     (D) None of these
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 9
104. Speech synthesis is
     (A) The ability to input data directly into a
     computer system by speaking to it
     (B) The ability to output data directly from a
     computer system in spoken words
     (C) Processing of voice in computer
     systems
     (D) None of these.
105. A technique used to reduce the speed
     mismatch between slow speed I/O devices
     and fast CPU is called
     (A) Spooling (B) Paging
     (C) Segmentation (D) None of these
106. Storing programs on disk and then
     transferring these programs into main
     storage as and when they are needed. The
     technique is used to process large
     programs or several programs with limited
     memory is called
     (A) Swapping (B) Spooling
     (C) Paging (D) Segmentation
107. Terminals is
     (A) An input device which allows a user to
     communicate directly with a computer
     system.
     (B) An output device which allows a user to
     communicate directly with a computer
     system.
     (C) Both A & B
     (D) None of these
108. A symbol to indicate beginning (START),
     ending (STOP) and pauses (HALT) in
     program logic flow are referred as
     (A) Terminal symbol (B) Decision symbol
     (C) Processing symbol(D) None of these
109. Portability is program ability to run on
     (A) dissimilar machines with minimum
     modification
     (B) similar machines with maximum
     modification
     (C) dissimilar machines with maximum
     modification
     (D) similar machines with maximum
     modification
110. A protocol that specifies how a personal
     computer can connect to a mail server on
     the Internet and download E-mail is known
     as
     (A) Post office protocol
     (B) System protocol
     (C) Network protocol
     (D) None of these
111. A unit of a computer system that interprets
     instructions and executes them is known as
     (A) Processor (B) Storage
     (C) Peripherals (D) None of these
112. A register in CPU used to store the address
     of the next instruction to be executed is
     known as
     (A) Program counter (B) Program library
     (C) Programmer (D) None of these
113. One who designs, writes, tests and
     maintenance computer programs is called
     (A) Programmer (B) Operator
     (C) User (D) None of these
114. Which of the following terms applies to
     communication between two computer
     systems?
     (A) computer literacy
     (B) power supply
     (C) applications software
     (D) connectivity
115. A memory in CPU that holds program
     instructions, input data, intermediate results
     and the output information produced during
     processing is
     (A) Secondary memory
     (B) Primary memory
     (C) Auxiliary memory
     (D) None of these
116. A collection of complete programs,
     subroutines, and program modules that
     have already been developed, tested and
     documented to be used by programming
     projects.
     (A) Program counter (B) Program library
     (C) Programmer (D) None of these
117. The following typically happens in the output
     phase of a computer based information
     system
     (A) Data is put into the computer for
     processing
     (B) Information is produced in hardcopy /
     softcopy form
     (C) Mathematical calculations are
     performed
     (D) All of the above.
118. Which of the following best describes a
     computer-based information system?
     (A) system where computer is used to turn
     data into information
     (B) inputting data
     (C) processing data
     (D) data is put into the computer for
     processing
     10 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
119. The following piece of hardware is used as
     input phase of a computer-based information
     system
     (A) Printer (B) Diskette
     (C) Monitor (D) Keyboard
120. Software instructions intended to satisfy a
     user specific processing needs are called
     (A) systems software
     (B) microcomputer
     (C) documentation
     (D) applications software
121. A term used for diskette is
     (A) disk cartridge (B) disk pack
     (C) floppy disk (D) none of these
122. Following is true for the digital computer
     (A) Information is in form of a string of binary
     digits
     (B) It can be used as analog processor
     (C) It is less accurate than the analog
     computer
     (D) None of these.
123. Comparing with secondary storage, primary
     storage is
     (A) slow and inexpensive
     (B) fast and inexpensive
     (C) fast and expensive
     (D) slow and expensive
124. CPU performs read/write operations
     at any point in time in
     (A) ROM (B) PROM
     (C) EPROM (D) RAM
125. Following is not the from of secondary
     storage
     (A) Magnetic tape (B) CD’s
     (C) Disk (D) Hard disk
126. Technique of placing software/programs
     in a ROM semiconductor chip is called
     (A) PROM (B) EPROM
     (C) firm ware (D) microprocessor
127. Following is not true for magnetic tape
     (A) low cost
     (B) direct-access storage medium
     (C) compact and portable
     (D) highly reliable
128. The following is an nonvolatile memory
     (A) ROM (B) RAM
     (C) LSI (D) VLSI
129. The __ can be programmed one
     time by either the manufacturer or the
     computer user. Once programmed, it cannot
     be modified.
     (A) RAM (B) ROM
     (C) PROM (D) EPROM
130. Which of the following is not true of a
     magnetic disk?
     (A) Users can update records by writing
     over the old data
     (B) It provides sequential access to stored
     data
     (C) It is slow relative to magnetic tape
     (D) All of the above are true
131. Which of the following was (were) not used
     in first-generation computers?
     (A) vacuum tubes (B) punch cards
     (C) magnetic core (D) all of the above
132. Following is not true for Backup files
     (A) These are the files which are generated
     automatically in when one saves a
     document.
     (B) These files help in protecting the
     document due to out of order of the
     computer or power failure.
     (C) These files delete as soon as computer
     is turned off
     (D) None of these
133. An algebra that deals with logical
     propositions which are either true or false is
     referred as
     (A) Boolean algebra (B) Modern Algebra
     (C) Abstract Algebra (D) None of these
134. Bandwidth is
     (A) The range of frequencies available for
     data transmission
     (B) Data transmission rate
     (C) Alternate for rubber band
     (D) None is true
135. A coding structure in which characters are
     represented by means of a series of parallel
     bars is
     (A) Bar Code (B) Menu bar
     (C) Numeric bar (D) None of these
136. In Broadband system a network system
     (A) Several analog signals share the same
     physical network channel.
     (B) Only digital signals share the same
     physical network channel.
     (C) Single analog signals share the same
     physical network channel.
     (D) None of these.
137. Bit stands for
     (A) binary digit
     (B) one binary piece of information
     (C) Both A and B are true
     (D) None is true
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 11
138. Broadband channel is the
     (A) The fastest carriers where data transfer
     rates is of 1 million baud (bits/secon(D)
     or more.
     (B) The slower carriers where data transfer
     rates is of 56k baud
     (C) Musical channel
     (D) None of these
139. BLOB is
     (A) Binary Large Object
     (B) A long bit string representing complex
     data
     (C) Object oriented language
     (D) Only A & B are true
140. A group of related items / section of program
     coding treated as a unit is referred as
     (A) Block (B) Duplex
     (C) Street (D) None of these
141. An operation in which data is moved to a
     different location is referred as
     (A) Block move (B) Street move
     (C) Delete (D) None of these
142. The following is responsible for number of
     logical records in a physical record
     (A) Blocking factor (B) Block
     (C) Boolean algebra (D) None of these
143. Boolean variable assumes
     (A) Values that are true only
     (B) Values that are false only
     (C) Values that are either true or false
     (D) None of these
144. Bubble Memory is
     (A) nonvolatile (B) volatile
     (C) permanent (D) None of these
145. In Nonvolatile memory device
     (A) Data contained in them is not lost when
     the power turned off
     (B) Data contained in them is lost when the
     power turned off.
     (C) data contained in them is permanent
     and not be rewrite
     (D) None of these
146. Following is true for Bubble Memory
     (A) A compact data storage device made of
     thin wafers of garnet (a semiconductor
     material) in a magnetic field.
     (B) Nonvolatile memory
     (C) Data contained in them is not lost when
     the power turned off
     (D) All are true
147. Buffer is device/ storage area
     (A) Where data are temporarily stored
     (B) Where data is permanently stored
     (C) Where data error occurs
     (D) None of these
148. A network geometric arrangement in which
     a single connecting line is shared by a
     number of nodes is called
     (A) Car Topology (B) Bus Topology
     (C) Truck Topology (D) None of these
149. An error in a computer program is referred
     as
     (A) Bug (B) Bit
     (C) Virus (D) None of these
150. Circuits that provide a communication path
     between two or more devices of a digital
     computer system is
     (A) Car (B) Bus
     (C) Truck (D) None of these
151. A fixed number of adjacent bits that represent
     a particular character or symbol are referred
     as
     (A) Byte (B) Octal
     (C) Bubble (D) None of these
152. Cache memory is a
     (A) Small buffer storage
     (B) Permanent storage
     (C) Main memory
     (D) None of these
153. The total number of digits (symbols)
     available to represent numbers in a
     positional number system is referred as
     (A) Number system (B) Base
     (C) Power (D) None of these
154. Cache memory is
     (A) Smaller and faster than main storage
     (B) Bigger and slower then main storage
     (C) Smaller but slower than main memory
     (D) Bigger and faster than main memory
155. Cache memory
     (A) Is a Static RAM
     (B) Increases the speed of processing by
     making current programs and data
     available to the CPU at a rapid rate
     (C) Both A & B are true
     (D) Both A & B are false
156. Following is false for BASIC
     (A) Beginners All-Purpose Symbolic
     Instruction Code
     (B) High-level interactive programming
     language
     12 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
     (C) Works in timesharing environment
     (D) Low level object oriented language
157. A unit for measuring data transmission
     speed that describes the capacity of a carrier
     is referred as
     (A) Baud (B) Bit
     (C) Bond (D) Batch
158. A process of trying out a new product by
     independent users before it is finally
     manufactured/ developed
     (A) Alpha test (B) Beta Test
     (C) Gamma test (D) None of these
159. A selection, choice, or condition involving two
     possibilities is referred as
     (A) Unary (B) Binary
     (C) Octal (D) None of these
160. Base band System is
     (A) A networking system
     (B) Where the channel support. a single
     digital signal.
     (C) Both A & B are true
     (D) None is true
161. One of the early coding systems, based on
     the idea of converting each digit of a decimal
     number into its binary equivalent rather than
     converting the entire decimal value into a
     pure binary form is
     (A) ASCII code (B) BCD
     (C) ASCIl-8 (D) None of these
162. In Batch processing
     (A) Several computer programs runs one
     after another without human interaction
     to run each program individually.
     (B) Several computer programs runs one
     after another with human interaction to
     run each program individually
     (C) Selected computer programs runs one
     after another with human interaction to
     run each program individually
     (D) None is true
163. BISYNC is
     (A) Binary synchronous
     (B) A process of transmitting data
     (C) A half-duplex, character-oriented,
     synchronous data communications
     transmission method
     (D) All the above
164. A device that is used to transmit data from
     one location to another is referred as
     (A) Storage (B) Memory
     (C) Carrier (D) None of these
165. Programs developed by an outside supplier
     and provided to the user in a machine
     readable form is known as
     (A) Canned Programs
     (B) Beta program
     (C) Alpha program
     (D) None of these
166. A binary numbers are represented by
     (A) Digits 0 and 1 (B) Digits 0,1,….,8
     (C) Digits A,B, C,… (D) None of these
167. BIOS is responsible for
     (A) handling the particulars of input/output
     operations
     (B) output operations
     (C) input operations
     (D) None of these
168. BIOS is an abbreviation for
     (A) Binary Input/Binary Output
     (B) Binary synchronous
     (C) Binary digit
     (D) None of these
169. BISYNC is an abbreviation for
     (A) Binary Input/Binary Output
     (B) Binary synchronous
     (C) Binary digit
     (D) None of these
170. The overall design, construction, organization
     and interconnecting of the various compo￾nents of a computer system is referred as
     (A) Computer Architecture
     (B) Computer Flow chart
     (C) Computer Algorithm
     (D) None of these
171. A number system with a base of two is
     referred as
     (A) Unary number system
     (B) Binary number system
     (C) Octal number system
     (D) None of these
172. In the IBM PC’s, the CPU, the device drives,
     memory, expansion slots and active
     components are mounted on a single board
     referred as
     (A) Motherboard (B) Breadboard
     (C) Daughter board (D) Father board.
173. Instead of buying new computer, productivity
     of old one can be economically enhanced
     with the help of?
     (A) Motherboard
     (B) Breadboard
     (C) Daughter board
     (D) Grandmother board.
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 13
174. Following communications lines, best suites
     to interactive processing applications
     (A) narrowband channels
     (B) simplex lines
     (C) full-duplex lines
     (D) mixed-band channels
175. Advantage of a multiprogramming system
     is
     (A) simultaneous execution of program
     instructions from two applications
     (B) concurrent processing of two or more
     programs
     (C) single processing at a time
     (D) none of these
176. A remote batch-processing operation where
     data is solely input to a central computer
     would require
     (A) telegraph line
     (B) simplex lines
     (C) mixed-band channel
     (D) none of these
     Answer Sheet
177. (C) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (B)
178. (A) 7. (D) 8. (A) 9. (D) 10. (A)
179. (A) 12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (A)
180. (B) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (A) 20. (A)
181. (A) 22. (A) 23. (A) 24. (A) 25. (A)
182. (C) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (C) 30. (B)
183. (C) 32. (A) 33. (A) 34. (C) 35. (A)
184. (C) 37. (A) 38. (A) 39. (A) 40. (B)
185. (A) 42. (A) 43. (D) 44. (A) 45. (A)
186. (D) 47. (D) 48. (C) 49. (B) 50. (A)
187. (B) 52. (C) 53. (D) 54. (D) 55. (C)
188. (A) 57. (D) 58. (B) 59. (B) 60. (C)
189. (B) 62. (A) 63. (B) 64. (C) 65. (C)
190. (D) 67. (B) 68. (D) 69. (B) 70. (A)
191. (A) 72. (A) 73. (A) 74. (A) 75. (A)
192. (C) 77. (B) 78. (A) 79. (A) 80. (C)
193. (D) 82. (A) 83. (A) 84. (C) 85. (D)
194. (A) 87. (A) 88. (B) 89. (A) 90. (A)
195. (A) 92. (A) 93. (B) 94. (A) 95. (D)
196. (A) 97. (A) 98. (A) 99. (A) 100. (A)
197. (A) 102. (C) 103. (A) 104. (B) 105. (A)
198. (A) 107. (C) 108. (A) 109. (A) 110. (A)
199. (A) 112. (A) 113. (A) 114. (D) 115. (B)
200. (B) 117. (B) 118. (A) 119. (D) 120. (D)
201. (C) 122. (A) 123. (C) 124. (C) 125. (D)
202. (C) 127. (B) 128. (A) 129. (C) 130. (B)
203. (C) 132. (C) 133. (A) 134. (A) 135. (A)
204. (A) 137. (C) 138. (A) 139. (D) 140. (A)
205. (A) 142. (A) 143. (C) 144. (A) 145. (A)
206. (D) 147. (A) 148. (B) 149. (A) 150. (B)
207. (A) 152. (A) 153. (B) 154. (A) 155. (C)
208. (D) 157. (A) 158. (B) 159. (B) 160. (C)
209. (B) 162. (A) 163. (D) 164. (A) 165. (A)
210. (A) 167. (A) 168. (A) 169. (A) 170. (A)
211. (B) 172. (A) 173. (C) 174. (C) 175. (B)
212. (B)
     14 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
     COMPUTER SECURITY
213. A vulnerability scanner is
     (A) a prepared application that takes
     advantage of a known weakness.
     (B) a tool used to quickly check computers
     on a network for known weaknesses.
     (C) an application that captures TCP/IP data
     packets, which can maliciously be used
     to capture passwords and other data
     while it is in transit either within the
     computer or over the network.
     (D) a situation in which one person or
     program successfully masquerades as
     another by falsifying data and thereby
     gaining illegitimate access.
214. A packet sniffer is
     (A) a prepared application that takes
     advantage of a known weakness.
     (B) a tool used to quickly check computers
     on a network for known weaknesses.
     (C) an application that captures TCP/IP data
     packets, which can maliciously be used
     to capture passwords and other data
     while it is in transit either within the
     computer or over the network.
     (D) a situation in which one person or
     program successfully masquerades as
     another by falsifying data and thereby
     gaining illegitimate access.
215. These hacker breaks security for altruistic
     or at least non-malicious reasons.
     (A) White hat (B) Grey hat
     (C) Blue hat (D) None of these
216. This hacker is a hacker of ambiguous ethics
     and/or borderline legality, often frankly
     admitted.
     (A) White hat (B) Grey hat
     (C) Blue hat (D) None of these
217. This hacker is someone outside computer
     security consulting firms that are used to bug
     test a system prior to its launch, looking for
     exploits so they can be closed.
     (A) White hat (B) Grey hat
     (C) Blue hat (D) None of these
218. It is a software program designed to record
     (‘log’) every keystroke on the machine on
     which it runs
     (A) Keylogger (B) Worm
     (C) Virus (D) Cracker
219. It is a self-replicating program that infects
     computer and spreads by inserting copies
     of itself into other executable code or
     documents.
     (A) Keylogger (B) Worm
     (C) Virus (D) Cracker
220. Like a virus, it is also a self-replicating
     program. The difference between a virus and
     it is that a worm does not create copies of
     itself on one system: it propagates through
     computer networks.
     (A) Keylogger (B) Worm
     (C) Cracker (D) None of these
221. Viruses that fool a user into downloading
     and/or executing them by pretending to be
     useful applications are also sometimes
     called?
     (A) Trojan horses (B) Keylogger
     (C) Worm (D) Cracker
222. These are program designed as to seem to
     being or be doing one thing, but actually
     being or doing another.
     (A) Trojan horses (B) Keylogger
     (C) Worm (D) Cracker
223. It is a toolkit for hiding the fact that a computer’s
     security has been compromised, is a general
     description of a set of programs which work
     to subvert control of an operating system from
     its legitimate (in accordance with established
     rules) operators.
     (A) Rootkit (B) Keylogger
     (C) Worm (D) Cracker
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 15
224. Packet Sniffer is
     (A) an application that captures TCP/IP data
     packets, which can maliciously be used
     to capture passwords and other data
     while it is in transit either within the
     computer or over the network.
     (B) a situation in which one person or
     program successfully masquerades as
     another by falsifying data and thereby
     gaining illegitimate access.
     (C) a toolkit for hiding the fact that a
     computer’s security has been
     compromised, is a general description
     of a set of programs which work to
     subvert control of an operating system
     from its legitimate (in accordance with
     established rules) operators.
     (D) None of these
225. Rootkit is
     (A) an application that captures TCP/IP data
     packets, which can maliciously be used
     to capture passwords and other data
     while it is in transit either within the
     computer or over the network.
     (B) a situation in which one person or
     program successfully masquerades as
     another by falsifying data and thereby
     gaining illegitimate access.
     (C) a toolkit for hiding the fact that a
     computer’s security has been
     compromised, is a general description
     of a set of programs which work to
     subvert control of an operating system
     from its legitimate (in accordance with
     established rules) operators.
     (D) None of these
226. Spoofing attack is
     (A) an application that captures TCP/IP data
     packets, which can maliciously be used
     to capture passwords and other data
     while it is in transit either within the
     computer or over the network.
     (B) a situation in which one person or
     program successfully masquerades as
     another by falsifying data and thereby
     gaining illegitimate access.
     (C) a toolkit for hiding the fact that a
     computer’s security has been
     compromised, is a general description
     of a set of programs which work to
     subvert control of an operating system
     from its legitimate (in accordance with
     established rules) operators.
     (D) None of these
227. Security exploit is
     (A) a prepared application that takes
     advantage of a known weakness.
     (B) a tool used to quickly check computers
     on a network for known weaknesses.
     (C) an application that captures TCP/IP data
     packets, which can maliciously be used
     to capture passwords and other data
     while it is in transit either within the
     computer or over the network.
     (D) a situation in which one person or
     program successfully masquerades as
     another by falsifying data and thereby
     gaining illegitimate access.
228. A spoofing attack is
     (A) a prepared application that takes
     advantage of a known weakness.
     (B) a tool used to quickly check computers
     on a network for known weaknesses.
     (C) an application that captures TCP/IP data
     packets, which can maliciously be used
     to capture passwords and other data
     while it is in transit either within the
     computer or over the network.
     (D) a situation in which one person or
     program successfully masquerades as
     another by falsifying data and thereby
     gaining illegitimate access.
229. White hat is
     (A) hacker breaks security for altruistic or at
     least non-malicious reasons.
     (B) hacker of ambiguous ethics and/or
     borderline legality, often frankly admitted.
     (C) someone outside computer security
     consulting firms that are used to bug
     test a system prior to its launch, looking
     for exploits so they can be closed.
     (D) None of these
230. Grey hat is
     (A) hacker breaks security for altruistic or at
     least non-malicious reasons.
     (B) hacker of ambiguous ethics and/or
     borderline legality, often frankly admitted.
     (C) someone outside computer security
     consulting firms that are used to bug
     test a system prior to its launch, looking
     for exploits so they can be closed.
     (D) None of these
     16 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
231. Blue hat is
     (A) hacker breaks security for altruistic or at
     least non-malicious reasons.
     (B) hacker of ambiguous ethics and/or
     borderline legality, often frankly admitted.
     (C) someone outside computer security
     consulting firms that are used to bug
     test a system prior to its launch, looking
     for exploits so they can be closed.
     (D) None of these
232. Black hat is
     (A) someone who subverts computer
     security without authorization or who
     uses technology (usually a computer or
     the Internet) for terrorism, vandalism
     (malicious destruction), credit card
     fraud, identity theft, intellectual property
     theft, or many other types of crime.
     (B) a person, usually not an expert in
     computer security, who breaks into
     computer systems by using pre￾packaged automated tools written by
     others.
     (C) hacker who utilizes technology to
     announce a political message.
     (D) None of these
233. Script kiddie is
     (A) someone who subverts computer
     security without authorization or who
     uses technology (usually a computer or
     the Internet) for terrorism, vandalism
     (malicious destruction), credit card
     fraud, identity theft, intellectual property
     theft, or many other types of crime.
     (B) a person, usually not an expert in
     computer security, who breaks into
     computer systems by using pre￾packaged automated tools written by
     others.
     (C) hacker who utilizes technology to
     announce a political message.
     (D) None of these
234. Hacktivism is
     (A) someone who subverts computer
     security without authorization or who
     uses technology (usually a computer or
     the Internet) for terrorism, vandalism
     (malicious destruction), credit card
     fraud, identity theft, intellectual property
     theft, or many other types of crime.
     (B) a person, usually not an expert in
     computer security, who breaks into
     computer systems by using pre￾packaged automated tools written by
     others.
     (C) hacker who utilizes technology to
     announce a political message.
     (D) None of these
235. It is a prepared application that takes
     advantage of a known weakness.
     (A) security exploit
     (B) vulnerability scanner
     (C) packet sniffer
     (D) rootkit
236. It is a tool used to quickly check computers
     on a network for known weaknesses.
     (A) security exploit
     (B) vulnerability scanner
     (C) packet sniffer
     (D) rootkit
237. It is an application that captures TCP/IP data
     packets, which can maliciously be used to
     capture passwords and other data while it
     is in transit either within the computer or over
     the network.
     (A) security exploit
     (B) vulnerability scanner
     (C) packet sniffer
     (D) rootkit
238. It is a situation in which one person or
     program successfully masquerades as
     another by falsifying data and thereby gaining
     illegitimate access.
     (A) security exploit
     (B) vulnerability scanner
     (C) packet sniffer
     (D) rootkit
     Answer Sheet
239. (B) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (C)
240. (A) 7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (A) 10. (A)
241. (A) 12. (A) 13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (A)
242. (D) 17. (A) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (A)
243. (B) 22. (C) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (C)
244. (A)
     COMPUTER : APPLICA COMPUTER : APPLICA COMPUTER : APPLICATION
     ( Microsoft Windows Oper osoft Windows Operosoft Windows Operating Sy ting Sy stem
     ( Microsoft Windows K osoft Windows Kosoft Windows Keyboard Shor tcuts
     ( Microsoft Of osoft Ofosoft Office
     ( Microsoft W osoft W ord
     ( Microsoft Ex osoft Exosoft Excel
     ( Microsoft P osoft P owerpoint
     ( Microsoft Access osoft Accessosoft Access

MICROSOFT WINDOWS
OPERATING SYSTEM

1. In Windows operating system the ————
   ——— is the main screen area that one sees
   after he turn on a computer and log on to
   Windows.
   (A) Desktop (B) Icons
   (C) Taskbar (D) None of these
2. In Windows operating system it sits at the
   bottom of windows desktop screen. It shows
   you which programs are running and allows
   you to switch between them. It also contains
   the Start button which one can use to access
   programs, folders, and computer settings.
   (A) Sidebar (B) Icons
   (C) Taskbar (D) None of these
3. In Windows operating system these are
   small pictures that represent files, folders,
   programs, and other items. Each one is
   used to make the computer do something.
   (A) Sidebar (B) Icons
   (C) Taskbar (D) None of these
4. In Windows operating system it is the long
   horizontal bar at the bottom of a screen.
   Unlike the desktop, which can get obscured
   by the windows on top of it, it is visible almost
   all the time.
   (A) Sidebar (B) Icons
   (C) Taskbar (D) None of these
5. In Windows operating system it is a very
   important part of Windows, clicking on it
   opens up what is called the start menu
   (A) Start button (B) Sidebar
   (C) Icons (D) None of these
6. In Windows operating system when you
   delete a file or folder, it doesn’t actually get
   deleted right away, it goes to the ————.
   (A) Recycle Bin (B) Dust Bin
   (C) Cycle Bin (D) None of these
7. In Windows operating system the clock in
   windows xp sits on the ————— and
   displays the system time.
   (A) Taskbar (B) Start menu
   (C) Desktop (D) None of these
8. Word Processors that is the part of Windows
   operating system
   (A) Wordpad
   (B) Notepad
   (C) Adobe Photoshop
   (D) Jasc Paint Shop
9. Microsoft Windows provides a graphics
   application named
   (A) Paint (B) Adobe Photoshop
   (C) Jasc Paint Shop(D) None of these
10. Text Editor that is the part of Windows
    operating system
    (A) Wordpad
    (B) Notepad
    (C) Adobe Photoshop
    (D) Jasc Paint Shop
11. It is a visual aspect that indicates that a
    control is ready to receive input from you in
    Windows operating system
    (A) Control’s Focus
    (B) Dialog Boxes
    (C) Command Buttons
    (D) Text Boxes
12. In Windows operating system it is a window
    that is used to display text or to receive text
    from you. The type of text it displays or the
    type of text you are asked to provide depends
    on the application or the situation.
    (A) Control’s Focus (B) Dialog Boxes
    (C) Command Buttons (D) Text Boxes
    Answer Sheet
13. (A) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (A)
14. (A) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (A) 10. (B)
15. (A) 12. (D)
    20 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
    MICROSOFT WINDOWS
    KEYBOARD SHORTCUTS
16. In Windows operating system to display or
    hide the Start menu
    (A) Windows Logo
    (B) Windows Logo + BREAK
    (C) Windows Logo + D
    (D) Windows Logo + M
17. In Windows operating system the shortcut
    key Windows Logo+SHIFT+M is used for
    (A) Restore the minimized windows
    (B) Open My Computer
    (C) Search for a file or a folder
    (D) Search for computers
18. In Windows operating system the shortcut
    key Windows Logo+E is used for
    (A) Restore the minimized windows
    (B) Open My Computer
    (C) Search for a file or a folder
    (D) Search for computers
19. In Windows operating system the shortcut
    key Windows Logo+F
    (A) Restore the minimized windows
    (B) Open My Computer
    (C) Search for a file or a folder
    (D) Search for computers
20. In Windows operating system shortcut key
    CTRL+Windows Logo+F
    (A) Restore the minimized windows
    (B) Open My Computer
    (C) Search for a file or a folder
    (D) Search for computers
21. In Windows operating system shortcut key
    Windows Logo+F1
    (A) Display Windows Help
    (B) Lock the keyboard
    (C) Open the Run dialog box
    (D) Open Utility Manager
22. In Windows operating system shortcut key
    Windows Logo+ L
    (A) Display Windows Help
    (B) Lock the keyboard
    (C) Open the Run dialog box
    (D) Open Utility Manager
23. In Windows operating system shortcut key
    Windows Logo+R
    (A) Display Windows Help
    (B) Lock the keyboard
    (C) Open the Run dialog box
    (D) Open Utility Manager
24. In Windows operating system to Display the
    System Properties dialog box
    (A) Windows Logo
    (B) Windows Logo + BREAK
    (C) Windows Logo + D
    (D) Windows Logo + M
25. In Windows operating system to Display the
    desktop
    (A) Windows Logo
    (B) Windows Logo + BREAK
    (C) Windows Logo + D
    (D) Windows Logo + M
26. In Windows operating system to minimize
    all of the windows
    (A) Windows Logo
    (B) Windows Logo + BREAK
    (C) Windows Logo + D
    (D) Windows Logo + M
27. In Windows operating system to move for￾ward through the tabs
    (A) CTRL+TAB (B) CTRL+SHIFT+TAB
    (C) SHIFT+TAB (D) None of these
28. In Windows operating system to move back￾ward through the tabs
    (A) CTRL+TAB (B) CTRL+SHIFT+TAB
    (C) SHIFT+TAB (D) None of these
29. In Windows operating system to move back￾ward through the options
    (A) CTRL+TAB (B) CTRL+SHIFT+TAB
    (C) SHIFT+TAB (D) None of these
30. In Windows operating system one press F1
    key to
    (A) Display help (B) Cut
    (C) Paste (D) None of these
    M.C.Qs. on Computer | 21
31. In Windows operating system after you
    double-click a character on the grid of char￾acters, keyboard shortcut DOWN ARROW is
    used for
    (A) Move to the right or to the beginning of
    the next line
    (B) Move to the left or to the end of the previ￾ous line
    (C) Move up one row
    (D) Move down one row
32. In Windows operating system after you
    double-click a character on the grid of char￾acters, keyboard shortcut PAGE UP is used
    for
    (A) Move up one screen at a time
    (B) Move down one screen at a time
    (C) Move to the beginning of the line
    (D) Move to the end of the line
33. In Windows operating system after you
    double-click a character on the grid of char￾acters, keyboard shortcut PAGE DOWN is
    used for
    (A) Move up one screen at a time
    (B) Move down one screen at a time
    (C) Move to the beginning of the line
    (D) Move to the end of the line
34. In Windows operating system after you
    double-click a character on the grid of char￾acters, keyboard shortcut HOME is used for
    (A) Move up one screen at a time
    (B) Move down one screen at a time
    (C) Move to the beginning of the line
    (D) Move to the end of the line
35. In Windows operating system after you
    double-click a character on the grid of char￾acters, keyboard shortcut END is used for
    (A) Move up one screen at a time
    (B) Move down one screen at a time
    (C) Move to the beginning of the line
    (D) Move to the end of the line
36. In Windows operating system after you
    double-click a character on the grid of char￾acters, keyboard shortcut CTRL+HOME is
    used for
    (A) Move to the first character
    (B) Move to the last character
    (C) Switch between Enlarged and Normal
    mode when a character is selected
    (D) None of these
37. In Windows operating system after you
    double-click a character on the grid of char￾acters, keyboard shortcut CTRL+END is
    used for
    (A) Move to the first character
    (B) Move to the last character
    (C) Switch between Enlarged and Normal
    mode when a character is selected
    (D) None of these
38. In Windows operating system after you
    double-click a character on the grid of charac￾ters, keyboard shortcut SPACEBAR is used
    for
    (A) Move to the first character
    (B) Move to the last character
    (C) Switch between Enlarged and Normal
    mode when a character is selected*
    (D) None of these
39. In Windows operating system to copy some￾thing the following shortcut is used
    (A) CTRL+C (B) CTRL+X
    (C) CTRL+V (D) None of these
40. In Windows operating system to cut some￾thing the following shortcut is used-
    (A) CTRL+C (B) CTRL+X
    (C) CTRL+V (D) None of these
41. In Windows operating system Shortcut
    CTRL+Z is for
    (A) Undo something
    (B) Delete something
    (C) Paste something
    (D) None of these
42. In Windows operating system shortcut DE￾LETE is for
    (A) Undo something
    (B) Delete something
    (C) Paste something
    (D) None of these
43. In Windows operating system shortcut
    SHIFT+DELETE is used for
    (A) Delete the selected item permanently with￾out placing the item in the Recycle Bin
    (B) Copy the selected item
    (C) Rename the selected item
    (D) Create a shortcut to the selected item
44. In Windows operating system shortcut CTRL
    while dragging an item
    (A) Delete the selected item permanently with￾out placing the item in the Recycle Bin
    (B) Copy the selected item
    (C) Rename the selected item
    (D) Create a shortcut to the selected item
    22 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
45. In Windows operating system shortcut
    CTRL+SHIFT while dragging an item
    (A) Delete the selected item permanently
    without placing the item in the Recycle
    Bin
    (B) Copy the selected item
    (C) Rename the selected item
    (D) Create a shortcut to the selected item
46. In Windows operating system to delete the
    selected item permanently without placing
    the item in the Recycle Bin
    (A) Shortcut SHIFT+DELETE
    (B) Shortcut CTRL while dragging an item
    (C) Shortcut CTRL+SHIFT while dragging
    an item
    (D) None of these
47. In Windows operating system move the in￾sertion point to the beginning of the next word.
    (A) Shortcut CTRL+RIGHT ARROW
    (B) Shortcut CTRL+LEFT ARROW
    (C) Shortcut CTRL+DOWN ARROW
    (D) None of these
48. In Windows operating system move the in￾sertion point to the beginning of the previ￾ous word
    (A) Shortcut CTRL+RIGHT ARROW
    (B) Shortcut CTRL+LEFT ARROW
    (C) Shortcut CTRL+DOWN ARROW
    (D) None of these
49. In Windows operating system move the in￾sertion point to the beginning of the next para￾graph
    (A) Shortcut CTRL+RIGHT ARROW
    (B) Shortcut CTRL+LEFT ARROW
    (C) Shortcut CTRL+DOWN ARROW
    (D) None of these
50. In Windows operating system move the in￾sertion point to the beginning of the previ￾ous paragraph
    (A) CTRL+RIGHT ARROW
    (B) CTRL+LEFT ARROW
    (C) CTRL+DOWN ARROW
    (D) None of these
51. In Windows operating system move the in￾sertion point to the beginning of the previ￾ous paragraph
    (A) CTRL+RIGHT ARROW
    (B) CTRL+LEFT ARROW
    (C) CTRL+DOWN ARROW
    (D) CTRL+UP ARROW
52. In Windows operating system CTRL+SHIFT
    with any of the arrow keys
    (A) Highlight a block of text
    (B) Delete something
    (C) Paste something
    (D) None of these
53. In Windows operating system SHIFT with any
    of the arrow keys
    (A) Highlight a block of text
    (B) Delete something
    (C) Paste something
    (D) Select more than one item in a window
    or on the desktop, or select text in a
    document
54. In Windows operating system shortcut
    CTRL+A is to
    (A) Select all
    (B) Highlight a block of text
    (C) Delete something
    (D) Paste something
55. In Windows operating system shortcut for
    paste is
    (A) CTRL+C (B) CTRL+X
    (C) CTRL+V (D) None of these
56. In Windows operating system Shortcut for
    copy is
    (A) CTRL+C (B) CTRL+X
    (C) CTRL+V (D) None of these
57. In Windows operating system to paste some￾thing after cutting the following shortcut is
    used
    (A) CTRL+C (B) CTRL+X
    (C) CTRL+V (D) None of these
58. In Windows operating system shortcut
    CTRL+C is used for
    (A) Cut (B) Paste
    (C) Copy (D) None of these
59. In Windows operating system the shortcut
    key CTRL+B is used for
    (A) Open the Organize Favorites dialog box
    (B) Open the Search bar
    (C) Start the Find utility
    (D) Open the History bar
60. In Windows operating system the shortcut
    key CTRL+E is used for
    (A) Open the Organize Favorites dialog box
    (B) Open the Search bar
    (C) Start the Find utility
    (D) Open the History bar
    M.C.Qs. on Computer | 23
61. In Windows operating system the shortcut
    key CTRL+F is used for
    (A) Open the Organize Favorites dialog box
    (B) Open the Search bar
    (C) Start the Find utility
    (D) Open the History bar
62. In Windows operating system the shortcut
    key CTRL+H is used for
    (A) Open the Organize Favorites dialog box
    (B) Open the Search bar
    (C) Start the Find utility
    (D) Open the History bar
63. In Windows operating system the shortcut
    key CTRL+I is used for
    (A) Open the Favorites bar
    (B) Open the Open dialog box
    (C) Start another instance of the browser
    with the same Web address
    (D) Open the Open dialog box, the same as
    CTRL+L
64. In Windows operating system the shortcut
    key CTRL+L is used for
    (A) Open the Favorites bar
    (B) Open the Open dialog box
    (C) Start another instance of the browser
    with the same Web address
    (D) Open the Open dialog box, the same as
    CTRL+L
65. In Windows operating system the shortcut
    key CTRL+N is used for
    (A) Open the Favorites bar
    (B) Open the Open dialog box
    (C) Start another instance of the browser
    with the same Web address
    (D) Open the Open dialog box, the same as
    CTRL+L
66. In Windows operating system the shortcut
    key CTRL+O is used for
    (A) Open the Favorites bar
    (B) Open the Open dialog box
    (C) Start another instance of the browser
    with the same Web address
    (D) Open the Open dialog box, the same as
    CTRL+L
67. In Windows operating system the shortcut
    key CTRL+P is used for
    (A) Open the Print dialog box
    (B) Update the current Web page
    (C) Close the current window
    (D) None of these
68. In Windows operating system the shortcut
    key CTRL+R is used for
    (A) Open the Print dialog box
    (B) Update the current Web page
    (C) Close the current window
    (D) None of these
69. In Windows operating system the shortcut
    key CTRL+W is used for
    (A) Open the Print dialog box
    (B) Update the current Web page
    (C) Close the current window
    (D) None of these
    Answer Sheet
70. (A) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (D)
71. (A) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (C)
72. (D) 12. (A) 13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (A)
73. (D) 17. (A) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (D)
74. (A) 22. (B) 23. (C) 24. (A) 25. (B)
75. (A) 27. (B) 28. (A) 29. (B) 30. (D)
76. (A) 32. (A) 33. (B) 34. (A) 35. (D)
77. (D) 37. (A) 38. (D) 39. (A) 40. (C)
78. (C) 42. (C) 43. (A) 44. (A) 45. (B)
79. (C) 47. (D) 48. (A) 49. (B) 50. (C)
80. (D) 52. (A) 53. (B) 54. (C)
    24 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
    MICROSOFT OFFICE
81. Microsoft Office is
    (A) Desktop applications
    (B) Operating system
    (C) Command window
    (D) None of these
82. Microsoft Office is an office suite, for the
    (A) Microsoft Windows operating systems
    (B) Mac OS X operating systems
    (C) Both A and B are true
    (D) None is true
83. Microsoft Word, Microsoft Excel, and
    Microsoft PowerPoint are the part of
    (A) Microsoft Office Suite
    (B) Microsoft Windows
    (C) Mac OS X
    (D) None of these
84. The very first version of Microsoft Office was
    released for
    (A) Windows operating system
    (B) Apple Macintosh OS
    (C) Unix
    (D) None of these
85. The first version of MS Office to be released
    for the Microsoft Windows operating system
    is
    (A) Microsoft Office 3.0
    (B) Microsoft Office 2003
    (C) Microsoft Office 2007
    (D) Microsoft Office XP
86. The word processor in MS office suite is
    (A) Microsoft Word
    (B) Microsoft Excel
    (C) Microsoft PowerPoint
    (D) None of these
87. Microsoft Word is a word processor that
    saves in its proprietary————format.
    (A) .doc (B) .pdf
    (C) .txt (D) None of these
88. Microsoft Office Suite spreadsheet program
    is
    (A) Microsoft Excel
    (B) Microsoft Word
    (C) Microsoft Powerpoint
    (D) None of these
89. A competitor to the dominant Lotus 1-2-3 is
    (A) Microsoft Excel
    (B) Microsoft Word
    (C) Microsoft PowerPoint
    (D) None of these
90. A personal information manager and e-mail
    communication software in MS Office is
    (A) Microsoft Outlook
    (B) Microsoft Word
    (C) Microsoft PowerPoint
    (D) None of these
91. A popular presentation program for Windows
    and Mac in Microsoft Office is
    (A) Microsoft Word
    (B) Microsoft PowerPoint
    (C) Microsoft Access
    (D) None of these
92. To create slideshows, composed of text,
    graphics, movies and other objects, which
    can be displayed on-screen and navigated
    through by the presenter or printed out on
    transparencies or slides one uses
    (A) Microsoft Word
    (B) Microsoft PowerPoint
    (C) Microsoft Access
    (D) None of these
93. For Database management one uses
    (A) Microsoft Access
    (B) Microsoft PowerPoint
    (C) Microsoft Access
    (D) None of these
    M.C.Qs. on Computer | 25
94. It is software for creating newsletters, busi￾ness cards, flyers, greeting cards or post￾cards.
    (A) Microsoft Publisher
    (B) Microsoft PowerPoint
    (C) Microsoft Access
    (D) None of these
95. It is a Note-taking software for use with tab￾let PCs or regular PCs.
    (A) Microsoft OneNote
    (B) Microsoft PowerPoint
    (C) Microsoft Access
    (D) None of these
96. Microsoft Office SharePoint Designer is
    used for
    (A) A WYSIWYG HTML editor and web de￾sign program for customizing
    SharePoint applications, it replaces
    Microsoft Office FrontPage
    (B) Project management software to keep
    track of events and to create network
    charts and Gantt charts
    (C) Diagram and flowcharting software
    (D) None of these
97. Microsoft Project is
    (A) A WYSIWYG HTML editor and web de￾sign program for customizing Share
    Point applications, it replaces Microsoft
    Office FrontPage
    (B) Project management software to keep
    track of events and to create network
    charts and Gantt charts
    (C) Diagram and flowcharting software
    (D) None of these
98. Microsoft Visio is a
    (A) A WYSIWYG HTML editor and web de￾sign program for customizing
    SharePoint applications, it replaces
    Microsoft Office FrontPage
    (B) Project management software to keep
    track of events and to create network
    charts and Gantt charts
    (C) Diagram and flowcharting software
    (D) None of these
99. Microsoft Office Accounting is
    (A) A tool for managing business finances
    (B) Project management software to keep
    track of events and to create network
    charts and Gantt charts
    (C) Diagram and flowcharting software
    (D) None of these
100. Microsoft Office Communicator is
     (A) Integrated communications client for
     conferences and meetings in real time
     (B) Project management software to keep
     track of events and to create network
     charts and Gantt charts
     (C) Diagram and flowcharting software
     (D) None of these
101. Microsoft Office Document Imaging is
     (A) An application that supports editing
     scanned documents
     (B) A scanning and OCR application
     (C) Diagram and flowcharting software
     (D) None of these
102. Microsoft Office Document Scanning is
     (A) An application that supports editing
     scanned documents
     (B) A scanning and OCR application
     (C) Diagram and flowcharting software
     (D) None of these
103. Microsoft Office Groove is
     (A) A proprietary peer-to-peer software pack￾age aimed at businesses
     (B) An application that supports editing
     scanned documents
     (C) A scanning and OCR application
     (D) Diagram and flowcharting software
104. Microsoft Office InterConnect is
     (A) Business-relationship database
     (B) An application that supports editing
     scanned documents
     (C) A scanning and OCR application
     (D) None of these
105. Microsoft Office Picture Manager is
     (A) Basic photo management software
     (B) An application that supports editing
     scanned documents
     (C) A scanning and OCR application
     (D) None of these
     Answer Sheet
106. (A) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (A)
107. (A) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (A) 10. (A)
108. (B) 12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (A)
109. (A) 17. (B) 18. (C) 19. (A) 20. (A)
110. (A) 22. (B) 23. (B) 24. (A) 25. (A)
     26 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
     MICROSOFT WORD
111. In Microsoft Word to cut something the
     following shortcut is used
     (A) CTRL+C (B) CTRL+X
     (C) CTRL+V (D) None of these
112. In Microsoft Word shortcut CTRL+Z is for
     (A) Undo something
     (B) Delete something
     (C) Paste something
     (D) None of these
113. In Microsoft Word shortcut DELETE is for
     (A) Undo something
     (B) Delete something
     (C) Paste something
     (D) None of these
114. A program which helps to create written
     document and lets you go back and make
     corrections as necessary
     (A) Home row keys (B) Tool bar
     (C) Spreadsheet (D) Word processor
115. Graphics for word processor
     (A) Peripheral (B) Clip art
     (C) Highlight (D) Execute
116. What type of software is used for creating
     letters papers and other documents?
     (A) Database
     (B) Word Processor
     (C) Spreadsheet
     (D) Operating Program
117. What does the Ctrl + I shortcut key
     accomplish in Ms-Word?
     (A) It converts selected text into the next
     larger size of the same font
     (B) It adds a line break to the document
     (C) It makes the selected text bold
     (D) It applies Italic formatting t the selected
     text.
118. What is the file extension of Ms-Word97-
     2003 document?
     (A) Dot (B) Doc
     (C) Dom (D) Txt
119. Why are headers and footers used in
     document?
     (A) To enhance the overall appearance of
     the document
     (B) To mark the starting and ending of a
     page
     (C) To make large document more readable
     (D) To allow page headers and footers to
     appear on document when it is printed
120. Which of the following shortcut key is used
     to check spelling?
     (A) F1 (B) F2
     (C) F7 (D) F9
121. What does Ctrl + B shortcut accomplish in
     Ms-Word?
     (A) It converts selected text into the next
     larger size of the same font
     (B) It adds a line break to the document
     (C) It makes the selected text bold
     (D) It applies Italic formatting t the selected
     text.
122. What is the minimum number of rows and
     columns that a word table can have?
     (A) Zero
     (B) 2 rows and 1 column
     (C) 2 rows and 2 column
     (D) 1 row and 1 column
123. In Microsoft Word shortcut key CTRL+R is
     used for
     (A) Open the Print dialog box
     (B) Update the current Web page
     (C) Close the current window
     (D) None of these
124. In Microsoft Word shortcut key CTRL+W is
     used for
     (A) Open the Print dialog box
     (B) Update the current Web page
     (C) Close the current window
     (D) None of these
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 27
125. In Microsoft Word system to copy something
     the following shortcut is used
     (A) CTRL+C (B) CTRL+X
     (C) CTRL+V (D) None of these
126. In Microsoft Word shortcut SHIFT+DELETE
     is used for
     (A) Delete the selected item permanently
     without placing the item in the Recycle
     Bin
     (B) Copy the selected item
     (C) Rename the selected item
     (D) Create a shortcut to the selected item
127. In Microsoft Word shortcut CTRL while
     dragging an item
     (A) Delete the selected item permanently
     without placing the item in the Recycle
     Bin
     (B) Copy the selected item
     (C) Rename the selected item
     (D) Create a shortcut to the selected item
128. In Microsoft Word shortcut CTRL+SHIFT
     while dragging an item
     (A) Delete the selected item permanently
     without placing the item in the Recycle
     Bin
     (B) Copy the selected item
     (C) Rename the selected item
     (D) Create a shortcut to the selected item
129. In Microsoft Word to delete the selected item
     permanently without placing the item in the
     Recycle Bin
     (A) Shortcut SHIFT+DELETE
     (B) Shortcut CTRL while dragging an item
     (C) Shortcut CTRL+SHIFT while dragging
     an item
     (D) None of these
130. In Microsoft Word move the insertion point to
     the beginning of the next word
     (A) Shortcut CTRL+RIGHT ARROW
     (B) Shortcut CTRL+LEFT ARROW
     (C) Shortcut CTRL+DOWN ARROW
     (D) None of these
131. In Microsoft Word move the insertion point to
     the beginning of the previous word
     (A) Shortcut CTRL+RIGHT ARROW
     (B) Shortcut CTRL+LEFT ARROW
     (C) Shortcut CTRL+DOWN ARROW
     (D) None of these
132. In Microsoft Word move the insertion point to
     the beginning of the next paragraph
     (A) Shortcut CTRL+RIGHT ARROW
     (B) Shortcut CTRL+LEFT ARROW
     (C) Shortcut CTRL+DOWN ARROW
     (D) None of these
133. In Microsoft Word move the insertion point to
     the beginning of the previous paragraph
     (A) CTRL+RIGHT ARROW
     (B) CTRL+LEFT ARROW
     (C) CTRL+DOWN ARROW
     (D) None of these
134. In Microsoft Word move the insertion point to
     the beginning of the previous paragraph
     (A) CTRL+RIGHT ARROW
     (B) CTRL+LEFT ARROW
     (C) CTRL+DOWN ARROW
     (D) CTRL+UP ARROW
135. In Microsoft Word using CTRL+SHIFT with
     any of the arrow keys
     (A) Highlight a block of text
     (B) Delete something
     (C) Paste something
     (D) None of these
136. In Microsoft Word using SHIFT with any of
     the arrow keys
     (A) Highlight a block of text
     (B) Delete something
     (C) Paste something
     (D) Select more than one item in a window
     or on the desktop, or select text in a
     document
137. In Microsoft Word shortcut CTRL+A is to
     (A) Select all
     (B) Highlight a block of text
     (C) Delete something
     (D) Paste something
138. In Microsoft Word shortcut for paste is
     (A) CTRL+C (B) CTRL+X
     (C) CTRL+V (D) None of these
139. In Microsoft Word shortcut for copy is
     (A) CTRL+C (B) CTRL+X
     (C) CTRL+V (D) None of these
140. In Microsoft Word to paste something after
     cutting the following shortcut is used
     (A) CTRL+C (B) CTRL+X
     (C) CTRL+V (D) None of these
141. In Microsoft Word shortcut CTRL+C is used
     for
     (A) Cut (B) Paste
     (C) Copy (D) None of these
142. In Microsoft Word shortcut key CTRL+B is
     used for
     (A) Open the Organize Favorites dialog box
     (B) Open the Search bar
     (C) Start the Find utility
     (D) Open the History bar
     28 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
143. In Microsoft Word shortcut key CTRL+E is
     used for
     (A) Open the Organize Favorites dialog box
     (B) Open the Search bar
     (C) Start the Find utility
     (D) Open the History bar
144. In Microsoft Word shortcut key CTRL+F is
     used for
     (A) Open the Organize Favorites dialog box
     (B) Open the Search bar
     (C) Start the Find utility
     (D) Open the History bar
145. In Microsoft Word shortcut key CTRL+H is
     used for
     (A) Open the Organize Favorites dialog box
     (B) Open the Search bar
     (C) Start the Find utility
     (D) Open the History bar
146. In Microsoft Word shortcut key CTRL+I is used
     for
     (A) Open the Favorites bar
     (B) Open the Open dialog box
     (C) Start another instance of the browser
     with the same Web address
     (D) Open the Open dialog box, the same as
     CTRL+L
147. In Microsoft Word shortcut key CTRL+L is
     used for
     (A) Open the Favorites bar
     (B) Open the Open dialog box
     (C) Start another instance of the browser
     with the same Web address
     (D) Open the Open dialog box, the same as
     CTRL+L
148. In Microsoft Word shortcut key CTRL+N is
     used for
     (A) Open the Favorites bar
     (B) Open the Open dialog box
     (C) Start another instance of the browser
     with the same Web address
     (D) Open the Open dialog box, the same as
     CTRL+L
149. In Microsoft Word shortcut key CTRL+O is
     used for
     (A) Open the Favorites bar
     (B) Open the Open dialog box
     (C) Start another instance of the browser
     with the same Web address
     (D) Open the Open dialog box, the same as
     CTRL+L
150. In Microsoft Word shortcut key CTRL+P is
     used for
     (A) Open the Print dialog box
     (B) Update the current Web page
     (C) Close the current window
     (D) None of these
     Answer Sheet
151. (B) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (B)
152. (B) 7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (C)
153. (B) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (A)
154. (A) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (A) 20. (A)
155. (B) 22. (A) 23. (D) 24. (D) 25. (A)
156. (D) 27. (A) 28. (C) 29. (C) 30. (C)
157. (A) 32. (A) 33. (B) 34. (C) 35. (D)
158. (A) 37. (B) 38. (C) 39. (D) 40. (A)
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 29
     MICROSOFT EXCEL
159. In Excel default header for a worksheet is
     (A) Your name
     (B) The date and time
     (C) None
     (D) The sheet tab name
160. In Excel which of the following is not an option
     in the spelling dialog box
     (A) Edit (B) Ignore
     (C) Ignore all (D) Change
161. Excel uses the …. Function when creating a
     data table
     (A) Average (B) Count
     (C) Sum (D) Table
162. In Excel you can copy cell formats from one
     cell to another by using the
     (A) Backspace key (B) Default font
     (C) Format painter (D) Formatting toolbar
163. In Excel accounting style shows negative
     numbers in
     (A) Bold (B) Brackets
     (C) Parentheses (D) Quotes
164. In Excel you can use drag and drop to embed
     excel worksheet data in a word document
     (A) By dragging a range of excel data to the
     word button on the taskbar while
     pressing the Ctrl key
     (B) By dragging a range of excel data to the
     Word button on the taskbar while
     pressing Shift key
     (C) By displaying both applications side-by￾side and dragging a selected range of
     Excel data into the word application
     window while pressing the Ctrl key
     (D) (A) and (C)
165. In Excel the chart wizard
     (A) Can place a chart on a new chart sheet
     or on any sheet in the workbook
     (B) Can only place a chart on new chart sheet
     (C) Can only place a chart on a new blank
     worksheet
     (D) Can only be used to create embedded
     charts
166. In Excel which functions will calculate the
     number of workdays between 6/9/2004 and
     8/12/2004
     (A) Workday (B) Date
     (C) Networkdays (D) All of the above
167. In Excel data marker on a chart are linked to
     data points in a worksheet, therefore,
     (A) You can automatically apply formatting
     to a data series
     (B) You can change the position of a data
     marker and automatically change the
     data point value in the worksheet
     (C) You can change a data print value and
     automatically are draw the chart
     (D) (A) and (B)
168. In Excel when you group worksheets
     (A) You can enter variable data on multiple
     worksheets at one time
     (B) You can print more than one worksheet
     at a time
     (C) You can enter common data, formats,
     and formulas on multiple worksheets
     at one time
     (D) (B) and (C)
169. In Excel you can zoom a worksheet
     (A) With the mouse pointer in Print Preview
     (B) With the zoom button on the Print
     Preview toolbar
     (C) With the Zoom command on the view
     menu
     (D) All of the above
170. You cannot link Excel worksheet data to a
     Word document
     (A) With the right drag method
     (B) With a hyperlink
     (C) With the copy and paste special
     commands
     (D) With the copy and paste buttons on the
     standard toolbar
     30 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
171. In Excel this type of software is similar to an
     accountant’s worksheet
     (A) Word processing (B) Database
     (C) Spreadsheets (D) Graphics
172. In Excel you can use the format painter
     multiple times before you turn it off by
     (A) You can use the format painter button
     only one time when you click it
     (B) Double clicking the format painter button
     (C) Pressing the Ctrl key and clicking the
     format painter button
     (D) Pressing Alt key and clicking the format
     painter button
173. In Excel default header for a worksheet is
     (A) Your name (B) The date and time
     (C) None (D) The sheet tab name
174. In Excel which of the following is not an option
     in the spelling dialog box
     (A) Edit (B) Ignore
     (C) Ignore all (D) Change
175. In Excel you can quickly change the
     appearance of your work by choosing Auto
     Format from the ……….. Menu
     (A) Edit (B) View
     (C) Format (D) Tools
176. In Excel….. is a group of cells that form a
     rectangle on the screen.
     (A) Calculation (B) Formula
     (C) Range (D) Range address
177. In Excel following term describes explanatory
     text attached to a cell
     (A) Callout (B) Comment
     (C) Dialog (D) Extension
178. In Excel the drag and drop method of copying
     or moving
     (A) Can be used between worksheets but
     not workbooks
     (B) Can be used between workbooks but
     not worksheets
     (C) Can be used between workbooks but
     not worksheets
     (D) None
179. In Excel 3-D reference in a formula
     (A) Cannot be modified
     (B) Only appears on summary worksheets
     (C) Limits the formatting options
     (D) Spans worksheets
180. In Excel the auto calculate feature
     (A) Can only add values in a range of cells
     (B) Provides a quick way to view the results
     of an arithmetic operation on a range of
     cells
     (C) Automatically creates formulas and
     adds them to a worksheet
     (D) None of the above
181. In Excel to protect a worksheet, you can
     choose Protection and the Protect Sheet from
     the ….. ……menu
     (A) Edit (B) Format
     (C) Tools (D) Data
182. In Excel you can open the Highlight Changes
     dialog box by choosing Track Changes from
     the …. Menu.
     (A) Edit (B) Insert
     (C) Format (D) Tools
183. In Excel which of the following is not a
     worksheet design criterion
     (A) Efficiency
     (B) Auditability
     (C) Description
     (D) Clarity Correct Answer:
184. In Excel to copy cell contents using drag and
     drop, press the
     (A) End key (B) Shift key
     (C) Esc key (D) None of above
185. In Excel if you press …….., the cell accepts
     your typing as its contents.
     (A) Enter (B) Ctrl + Enter
     (C) TAB (D) Insert
186. In Excel the auto fill feature
     (A) Extends a sequential series of data
     (B) Automatically adds a range of cell
     values
     (C) Applies a boarder around selected cells
     (D) None of above
187. In Excel the keyboard shortcut (button or
     buttons to be presse(D) for creating a chart
     from the selected cells
     (A) F3 (B) F5
     (C) F7 (D) F11
188. In Excel you can use the formula palette to
     (A) Format cells containing numbers
     (B) Create and edit formulas containing
     functions
     (C) Entered assumptions data
     (D) Copy a range of cells
189. What excel feature can you use if you want to
     work with one record at a time?
     (A) Auto Complete (B) Auto Filter
     (C) Data Form (D) Sub Totals
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 31
190. In Excel what chart object is horizontal or
     vertical line that extends across the plot area
     to make it easier to read and follow the
     values?
     (A) Category axis (B) Data marker
     (C) Data point (D) Gridline
191. In Excel value used in a formula that does
     not change is called a
     (A) Cell address (B) Constant
     (C) Function (D) Range
192. In Excel which elements of worksheet can
     be protected from accidental modification ?
     (A) Contents (B) Objects
     (C) Scenarios (D) All of above
193. In Excel you can use the drag and drop
     method to
     (A) Copy cell contents
     (B) Move cell contents
     (C) Add cell contents
     (D) (A) and (B)
194. In Excel it is acceptable ot let long text flow
     into adjacent cells on a worksheet when
     (A) Data will be entered in the adjacent cells
     (B) No data will be entered in the adjacent
     cells
     (C) There is nt suitable abbreviation of the
     text
     (D) There is not time to format the next
195. In Excel how can you delete a record?
     (A) Delete the column from the worksheet
     (B) Select Data > Form from the menu to
     open the Data Form dialog box, find the
     record and Click the Delete button
     (C) Select Data > Delete Record from the
     menu
     (D) Click the Delete button on the Standard
     toolbar
196. Right clicking something in Excel
     (A) Deletes the object
     (B) Nothing the right mouse button is there
     for left handed people
     (C) Opens a shortcut menu listing
     everything you can do to the object
     (D) Selects the object
197. In Excel Documentation should include
     (A) Destination and users of the output data
     (B) Source of input data
     (C) Information on the purpose of the
     workbook
     (D) All of the above
198. Files created with Lotus 1-2-3 have an
     extension
     (A) DOC (B) XLS
     (C) 123 (D) WK1
199. In Excel to delete an embedded objects, first
     (A) Double click the object
     (B) Select the object by clicking it
     (C) Press the Shift + Delete keys
     (D) Select it and then press the delete key
200. In Excel comments can be added to cells
     using
     (A) Edit > Comments
     (B) Insert > Comments
     (C) File > Comments
     (D) View > Comments
201. In Excel which of the following is not a
     worksheet design criterion?
     (A) Efficiency (B) Aditibility
     (C) Description (D) Clarity
202. In Excel suppose you have columns of data
     that span more than one printed page. How
     can you automatically print the column
     headings on each page?
     (A) Click page setup on the file menu, click
     the sheet tab, and enter the row that
     contains these column headings under
     print titles.
     (B) Click page setup on the file menu, click
     the page tab, click the options button,
     then enter your choices.
     (C) Click page setup on the finle menu, click
     the sheet tab, and make a selection
     under the print heading.
     (D) All of above
203. In Excel a fast way to add up this column of
     number is to click in the cell below the
     numbers and then
     (A) Click subtotals on the data menu
     (B) View the sum in the formula bar
     (C) Click the autosum button on the
     standard toolbar, then press enter
     (D) All of above
204. In Excel which of the following is an absolute
     cell reference?
     (A) !A!1 (B) $A$1
     (C) #a#1 (D) A1
205. In Excel what symbol is used before a
     number to make it a label?
     (A) “ (quote) (B) = (equal)
     (C) _ (underscore) (D) ‘ (apostrophe)
     32 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
206. In Excel which symbol must all formula begin
     with?
     (A) = (B) +
     (C) ( (D) @
207. In Excel which of the following formulas is
     not entered correctly?
     (A) =10+50 (B) =B7*B1
     (C) =B7+14 (D) 10+50
208. In Excel which of the following formulas will
     Excel not be able to calculate?
     (A) =SUM(Sales)-A3
     (B) =SUM(A1:A5)*.5
     (C) =SUM(A1:A5)/(10-10)
     (D) =SUM(A1:A5)-10
209. In Excel typical worksheet has …. Number
     of columns
     (A) 128 (B) 256
     (C) 512 (D) 1024
210. In Excel how many characters can be typed
     in a single cell?
     (A) 256 (B) 1024
     (C) 32,000 (D) 65,535
211. In Excel worksheet can have a maximum of
     …. Number of rows
     (A) 256 (B) 1024
     (C) 32,000 (D) 65,535
212. In Excel the following is not an example of a
     value
     (A) 350 (B) May 10, 2001
     (C) 57&per cent;(D) Serial Number 50771
213. In Excel chart wizard term data series refers
     to
     (A) A chart legend
     (B) A collection of chart data markers
     (C) A set of values you plot in a chart
     (D) A data label
214. In Excel Chart wizard term data categories
     refers to
     (A) A chart plot area
     (B) A horizontal axis
     (C) The organization of individual values
     with a chart’s data series
     (D) The data range that supply chart data
215. In Excel worksheet range is a
     (A) A command used for data modeling
     (B) A range of values such as from 23 to
     234
     (C) A group of cells
     (D) A group of worksheets
216. In Excel getting data from a cell located in a
     different sheet is called
     (A) Accessing (B) Referencing
     (C) Updating (D) Functioning
217. In Excel Tab scrolling button
     (A) Allow you to view a different worksheet
     (B) Allow you to view additional worksheet
     rows down
     (C) Allow you to view additional worksheet
     columns to the right
     (D) Allow you to view additional sheets tabs
218. In Excel numeric value can be treated as a
     label value if it precedes with
     (A) Apostrophe (‘) (B) Exclamation (!)
     (C) Hash (#) (D) Ampersand (&)
219. In Excel concatenation of text can be done
     using
     (A) Apostrophe (‘) (B) Exclamation (!)
     (C) Hash (#) (D) Ampersand (&)
220. In Excel data can be arranged in a worksheet
     in a easy to understand manner using
     (A) Auto formatting (B) Applying styles
     (C) Changing fonts (D) All of above
221. In Excel you can use drag-and-drop to
     embed excel worksheet data in a word
     document
     (A) By dragging a range of excel data to the
     word button on the taskbar while
     pressing the Ctrl key
     (B) By dragging a range of excel data to the
     word button on the taskbar while
     pressing Shift key
     (C) By dragging a range of excel data to the
     word button on the taskbar while
     pressing Alt key
     (D) None of above
222. In Excel the auto calculate feature
     (A) Can only add values in a range of cells
     (B) Provides a quick way to view the result
     of an arithmetic operation on a range of
     cells
     (C) Automatically creates formulas and
     adds them to a worksheet
     (D) (A) and (C)
223. In Excel to view a cell comment
     (A) Click the edit comment commands on
     the Insert menu
     (B) Click the Display comment command
     on the window menu
     (C) Position the mouse pointer over the cell
     (D) Click the comment command on the
     view menu
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 33
224. In Excel say that you want to paste a formula
     result – but not the underlying formula – to
     another cell. In excel 2002, you would copy
     the cell with the formula, then place the
     insertion point in the cell you want to copy to
     what next?
     (A) Click the Paste button on the standard
     toolbar
     (B) Click the arrow on the paste button on
     the standard toolbar, then click formulas
     (C) Click the arrow on the paste button on
     the standard toolbar, then click values.
     (D) All of above
225. In Excel you can select a single range of cells
     by
     (A) Clicking the upper-left cell in a group of
     cells and then pressing the Shift key
     while clicking the lower right cell in a
     group of cells
     (B) Pressing the Ctrl key while dragging
     over the desired cells
     (C) Pressing the Shift key and an arrow key
     (D) Dragging over the desired cells
226. All formula in Excel start with
     (A) &percent; (B) +
     (C) = (D) –
227. In Excel you can use a function to combine
     text from two cells into one cell. But you can
     use an operator to do the same thing. Which
     operator is that?
     (A) & (ampersan(D) (B) = (equal sign)
     (C) (space) (D) All of the above
228. In Excel two common wildcard characters
     that Excel recognizes are
     (A) * and ? (B) < and >
     (C) ^ and / (D) + and –
229. In Excel divide symbol is
     (A) / (B) D
     (C) \ (D) )
230. In Excel to add two cells (A1 and A2) together
     you use the following formula
     (A) =A1 + A2 (B) =Add(A1+A2)
     (C) =together(A1:A2) (D) A1 plus A2
231. In Excel on an excel sheet the active cell in
     indicated by
     (A) A dark wide boarder
     (B) A dotted border
     (C) A blinking border
     (D) None of above
232. In Excel on an Excel sheet the active cell in
     indicated by
     (A) A dark wide border
     (B) A dotted border
     (C) A blinking border
     (D) None of above
233. In Excel using the F11 shortcut key to create
     a chart on chart sheet creates
     (A) A default chart
     (B) A 2-dimensional column chart
     (C) A 2-dimensional bar chart
     (D) A 3-dimensional line chart
234. In Excel you can print
     (A) A range of cells by range name
     (B) An entire worksheet
     (C) A single worksheet
     (D) All of the above
235. In Excel you can create only a horizontal page
     break by first selecting
     (A) A row below the row where you want the
     page break to occure
     (B) A cell in row 1
     (C) A cell in column A
     (D) (A) and (C)
236. In Excel you can create hyperlinks from the
     Excel workbook to
     (A) A webpage on company internet
     (B) A web page on the internet
     (C) Other Office application documents
     (D) All
237. In Excel cell reference for a range of cells
     that starts in cell B1 and goes over to column
     G and down to row 10 is
     (A) B1-G10 (B) B1.G10
     (C) B1;G10 (D) B1:G10*
238. In Excel advantage of using a spreadsheet
     is
     (A) calculations can be done automatically.
     (B) changing data automatically updates
     calculations
     (C) more flexibility
     (D) all of the above
239. In Excel intersection of a row and column is
     called :
     (A) Cata (B) A field.
     (C) A cell (D) An equation.
240. There are three types of data found in a
     spreadsheet
     (A) data, words, numbers
     (B) equations, data, numbers
     (C) words, numbers, labels
     (D) numbers formulas, labels
     34 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
241. In Excel to select a column the easiest
     method is to
     (A) Double click any cell in the column
     (B) Drag from the top cell in the column to
     the last cell in the column
     (C) Click the column heading
     (D) Click the column label
242. In Excel if you press ……, the cell accepts
     your typing as its contents.
     (A) Enter (B) Ctrl+Enter
     (C) Tab (D) Insert
243. In Excel to view a cell comment
     (A) Click the edit comment command on
     the insert menu
     (B) Click the display comment command
     on the window menu
     (C) Position the mouse pointer over the cell
     (D) Click the comment command on the
     view menu
244. In Excel when you want to insert a blank
     imbedded excel object in a word document
     you can
     (A) Click the object command on the insert
     menu
     (B) Click the office links button on the
     standard toolbar
     (C) Click the create worksheet button on the
     formatting toolbar
     (D) Click the import excel command on the
     file menu
245. In Excel to save a workbook, you
     (A) Click the save button on the standard
     toolbar from the menu
     (B) Press Ctrl+F5
     (C) Click Save on the Windows Start button
     (D) Select Edit>Save
246. In Excel you can edit a cell by
     (A) Clicking the formula button
     (B) Double clicking the cell to edit it in-place
     (C) Selecting Edit>Edit Cell from the menu
     (D) None of above
247. In Excel you can select a single range of cells
     by
     (A) Clicking the upper-left cell in a group of
     cells and then pressing the Shift key
     while clicking the lower right cell in a
     group of cells
     (B) Pressing the Ctrl key while dragging
     over the desired cells
     (C) Pressing the Shift key and an arrow key
     (D) Dragging over the desired cells
248. In Excel to copy cell contents using drag and
     drop press the
     (A) End key (B) Shift key
     (C) Ctrl key (D) Esc key
249. In Excel when you copy a formula
     (A) Excel erases the original copy of the
     formula
     (B) Excel edits cell references in the newly
     copied formula
     (C) Excel adjusts absolute cell references
     (D) Excel doesn’t adjust relative cell
     references
250. In Excel autofill feature
     (A) Extends a sequential series of data
     (B) Automatically adds range of cell values
     (C) Applies a boarder around the selected
     cells
     (D) None of the above
251. In Excel which menu option can be sued to
     split windows into two
     (A) Format > window
     (B) View > window > split
     (C) Window > split
     (D) View > split
252. In Excel which of the following special
     function keys allow the content in cell
     (A) Esc (B) Shift
     (C) Return (D) Tab
253. In Excel which is not an advantage of using
     computerized spreadsheets?
     (A) Flexibility of moving entries
     (B) Speed of calculation
     (C) Ability of generate tables
     (D) Cost of initial setup
254. In Excel To hold row and column titles in
     place so that they do not scroll when you
     scroll a worksheet click the
     (A) Unfreeze panes command on the
     window menu
     (B) Freeze panes command on the window
     menu
     (C) Hold titles command on the edit menu
     (D) Split command on the window menu
255. In Excel the following will not cut information
     (A) Pressing Ctrl + C
     (B) Selecting Edit>Cut from the menu
     (C) Clicking the Cut button on the standard
     (D) Pressing Ctrl+X
256. In Excel which of the following is not a way to
     complete a cell entry?
     (A) Pressing enter
     (B) Pressing any arrow key on the keyboard
     (C) Clicking the Enter button on the Formula
     bar
     (D) Pressing spacebar
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 35
257. In Excel you can activate a cell by
     (A) Pressing the Tab key
     (B) Clicking the cell
     (C) Pressing an arrow key
     (D) All of the above
258. In Excel Text formulas
     (A) Replace cell references
     (B) Return ASCII values of characters
     (C) Concatenate and manipulate text
     (D) Show formula error value
259. In Excel how do you insert a row?
     (A) Right-click the row heading where you
     want to insert the new row and select
     Insert from the shortcut menu
     (B) Select the row heading where you want
     to insert the new row and select Edit

Row from the menu
(C) Select the row heading where you want
to insert the new row and click the Insert
Row button on the standard toolbar
(D) All of the above

102. In Excel the following is not a basic step in
     creating a worksheet
     (A) Save workbook
     (B) Modifiy the worksheet
     (C) Enter text and data
     (D) Copy the worksheet
103. In Excel how do you select an entire column?
     (A) Select Edit > Select > Column from the
     menu
     (B) Click the column heading letter
     (C) Hold down the shift key as you click
     anywhere in the column.
     (D) Hold down the Ctrl key as you click
     anywhere in the column
104. In Excel how can you print three copies of a
     workbook?
     (A) Select File>Properties form the menu
     and type 3 in the Copies to print text box.
     (B) Select File >Print from the menu and
     type 3 in the Number of copies text box.
     (C) Click the Print button on the standard
     toolbar to print the document then take
     it to Kinko’s and have 2 more copies
     made
     (D) Press Ctrl+P+3
105. In Excel to create a formula, you first
     (A) Select the cell you want to place the
     formula into
     (B) Type the equals sign (=) to tell Excel that
     you’re about to enter a formula
     (C) Enter the formula using any input values
     and the appropriate mathematical
     operators that make up your formula
     (D) Choose the new command from the file
     menu
106. In Excel to center worksheet titles across a
     range of cells, you must
     (A) Select the cells containing the title text
     plus the range over which the title text is
     to be centered
     (B) Widen the columns
     (C) Select the cells containing the title text
     plus the range over which the title text is
     to be enfettered
     (D) Format the cells with the comma style
107. In Excel how do you delete a column?
     (A) Select the column heading you want to
     delete and select the Delete Row button
     on the standard toolbar
     (B) Select the column heading you want to
     delete and select Insert Delete from the
     menu
     (C) Select the row heading you want to
     delete and select Edit>Delete from the
     menu
     (D) Right click the column heading you want
     to delet and select delete from the
     shortcut menu
108. In Excel how can you find specific information
     in a list?
     (A) Select Tools > Finder from the menu
     (B) Click the Find button on the standard
     toolbar
     (C) Select Insert > Find from the menu
     (D) Select Data > Form from the menu to
     open the Data Form dialog box and click
     the Criteria button
109. In Excel when integrating word and excel,
     word is usually the
     (A) Server (B) Destination
     (C) Client (D) Both (A) and (C)
110. In Excel when a label is too long to fit within
     a worksheet cell, you typically must
     (A) Shorten the label
     (B) Increase the column width
     (C) Decrease the column width
     (D) Adjust the row height
111. In Excel name box
     (A) Shows the location of the previously
     active cell
     (B) Appears to the left of the formula bar
     (C) Appears below the status bar
     (D) Appears below the menu bar
     36 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
112. In Excel Comments put in cells are called
     (A) Smart tip (B) Cell tip
     (C) Web tip (D) Soft tip
113. In Excel which is used to perform what if
     analysis?
     (A) Solver (B) Goal seek
     (C) Scenario Manager (D) All of above
114. In Excel you can use the horizontal and
     vertical scroll bars to
     (A) Split a worksheet into two panes
     (B) View different rows and columns edit
     the contents of a cell
     (C) Edit the contents of a cell
     (D) View different worksheets
115. In Excel Multiple calculations can be made
     in a single formula using
     (A) standard formulas
     (B) array formula
     (C) complex formulas
     (D) smart formula
116. In Excel To select several cells or ranges
     that are not touching each other, you would
     … while selecting
     (A) hold down the Ctrl key
     (B) hold down the Shift key
     (C) hold down the Alt key
     (D) hold down Ctrl + Shift key
117. In Excel A certain spreadsheet shows in Page
     Break Preview that cells in Rows 1-25 have
     white background. The cells in row 26 that
     contain data have a dark grey background,
     when you click the Print button
     (A) nothing will print because some cells
     with data have been omitted
     (B) only the cells with gray background will
     print
     (C) the whole sheet will print
     (D) only the cells with white background will
     print
118. In Excel constant is another name for this
     type of data
     (A) number (B) equation
     (C) formula (D) description
119. In Excel the view that puts a blue a blue line
     around each page that would be printed is
     the
     (A) Print Preview (B) Normal View
     (C) Page Break Preview (D) Split View
120. In Excel AutoCalculate will quickly add
     selected cells if you
     (A) right click on the status bar and select Sum
     (B) click the AutoCalculate button on the
     toolbar
     (C) use the key combination Ctrl+$
     (D) double click the selection
121. In Excel the cell labeled F5 refers to
     (A) row F column 5
     (B) column F row 5
     (C) function available in cells
     (D) function key F4
122. In Excel when you are typing an equation
     into a cell the first thing that must be entered
     is
     (A) the first cell referenced
     (B) parenthesis
     (C) quotation marks
     (D) an equal sign
123. In Excel using the AutoSum button will
     replace in the selected cell
     (A) the sum of values in the cell’s column
     (B) nothing until you select a range of cells
     (C) the sum of the cell’s row unless you
     change the range
     (D) a formula which will add values in the
     range Excel guesses you want to add
124. In Excel Book1 is an example of how … are
     numbered and named during each work
     session
     (A) Active cell (B) Formula bar
     (C) Menu bar (D) Name box
125. In Excel the following displays the contents
     of the active cell
     (A) Active cell (B) Formula bar
     (C) Menu bar (D) Name box
126. In Excel Graphics objects on a chart are used
     to
     (A) Add emphasis to chart data
     (B) Add interest to a chart
     (C) Help explain the chart data
     (D) All the above
127. In Excel to select a column the easiest
     method is to
     (A) Double click any cell in the column
     (B) Drag from the top cell in the column to
     the last cell in the column
     (C) Click the column heading
     (D) Click the column label
128. In Excel to select an individual data marker
     or data label, you must
     (A) Double click the data series
     (B) Right click selected marker
     (C) Click once to select the series markers
     or labels and click the desired marker
     or label again
     (D) Double click the marker or label
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 37
129. In Excel to delete and embedded object, first
     (A) Double click the object
     (B) Select the object by clicking it
     (C) Press the Shift + Delete keys
     (D) Select it and then press Delete key
130. This type of software contains rows and
     columns.
     (A) Drawing (B) Spreadsheet
     (C) Database (D) Word processing
131. In Excel to open an existing workbook, you
     can click the Open button on the …… toolbar.
     (A) Drawing (B) Formatting
     (C) Forms (D) Standard
132. In Excel you can activate a cell by
     (A) Pressing the Tab key
     (B) Clicking the cell
     (C) Pressing an arrow key
     (D) All of above
133. In Excel the following setup options cannot
     be set in the page setup dialog box?
     (A) Printer selection
     (B) Vertical or horizontal placement
     (C) Orientation
     (D) Row and column titles
134. In Excel term refers to a specific set of values
     saved with the workbook
     (A) Range (B) Scenario
     (C) Trend line (D) What-if analysis
135. In Excel got functions? No? You need the
     insert function dialog box. How do you get it?
     (A) Right click a cell and then click insert
     (B) Click the insert menu and then click
     function
     (C) Type = in a cell
     (D) All of the above
136. In Excel the following describes how to select
     all the cells in a single column?
     (A) Right click on column and select Pick
     from list
     (B) Use data – text to columns menu item
     (C) Left click on the gray column title button
     (D) Pressing Ctrl + A on the keyboard
137. In Excel when you use the fill effects in the
     format data series dialog box, you cannot
     (A) Rotate text on the chart
     (B) Select a fore ground color
     (C) Select a pattern
     (D) Select a background color
138. In Excel Paper spreadsheets can have all
     the same advantages as an electronic
     spreadsheet except which of the following?
     (A) Rows and columns (B) Headings
     (C) Speed (D) None
139. In Excel the following is not a basic step in
     creating a worksheet
     (A) Save the workbook
     (B) Modify the worksheet
     (C) Enter text and data
     (D) Copy the worksheet
140. In Excel what does SUMIF function do?
     (A) Adds up cell values based on a condition
     (B) Adds all the numbers in a range of cells
     (C) Returns a subtotal in a list or database
     (D) All of above
141. In Excel you can insert labels for
     (A) All the data markers on a chart
     (B) A data series
     (C) A selected data marker
     (D) All of the above
142. In Excel Tab scrolling buttons
     (A) Allow you to view a different worksheet
     (B) Allow you to view additional worksheet
     row down
     (C) Allow you to view additional worksheet
     columns to the right
     (D) Allow you to view additional sheet tabs
143. In Excel All macro keyboard shortcuts include
     the ….. key
     (A) Alt (B) Ctrl
     (C) F11 (D) Shift
144. In Excel to open the Format Cells dialog box,
     press
     (A) Alt + 1 (B) Ctrl + 1
     (C) Ctrl + Shift + 1 (D) F1
145. In Excel you can add a hyperlink to your
     worksheet by pressing
     (A) Alt + K (B) Ctrl + H
     (C) Ctrl + K (D) Ctrl + Shift + K
146. In Excel to move to the previous worksheet,
     press
     (A) Alt + PgUp (B) Ctrl + PgUp
     (C) Ctrl + PgDn (D) Shift + Tab
147. In Excel you can select a single range of cells
     by
     (A) Clicking the upper-left cell in a group of
     cells and then pressing the Shift key
     while clicking the lower right cell in a
     group of cells
     (B) Pressing the Ctrl key while dragging
     over the desired cells
     (C) Pressing the Shift key and an arrow key
     (D) Dragging over the desired cells
     38 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
148. In Excel which of these will not select all the
     cells in a document?
     (A) Clicking three times with the right
     mouse button in the spreadsheet
     (B) Using the Edit – Select All menu
     (C) Pressing Ctrl + A on the keyboard
     (D) Pressing Ctrl + A on the keyboard
149. In Excel you can use the formula palette to
     (A) Format cells containing numbers
     (B) Create and edit formulas containing
     functions
     (C) Enter assumptions data
     (D) Copy a range of cells
150. In Excel you can convert existing excel
     worksheet data an charts to an HTML
     document by using
     (A) FTP wizard
     (B) Internet assistant wizard
     (C) Intranet wizard
     (D) Import wizard
151. In Excel circular reference is
     (A) Geometric modeling tool
     (B) A cell that points to a drawing object
     (C) A formula that either directly or indirectly
     depends on itself
     (D) Always erroneous
152. In Excel when you insert an excel file into a
     word document. The data are
     (A) Hyperlinked placed in a word table
     (B) Linked
     (C) Embedded
     (D) Use the word menu bar and toolbars
153. In Excel the following is not information you
     can specify using the solver
     (A) Input cells (B) Constraints
     (C) Target cell (D) Changing cells
154. In Excel each excel file is called a workbook
     because
     (A) It can contain text and data
     (B) It can be modified
     (C) It can contain many sheets including
     worksheets and chart sheets
     (D) You have to work hard to create it
155. In Excel you can enter which types of data
     into worksheet cells?
     (A) Labels, values, and formulas
     (B) Labels and values but not formulas
     (C) Values and formulas but not labels
     (D) Formulas only
156. In Excel all worksheet formula
     (A) Manipulate values
     (B) Manipulate labels
     (C) Return a formula result
     (D) Use the addition operator
157. In Excel which of the following is a correct
     order of precedence in formula calculation?
     (A) Multiplication and division exponentia￾tion positive and negative values
     (B) Multiplication and division, positive and
     negative values, addition and subtraction
     (C) Addition and subtraction, positive and
     negative values, exponentiation
     (D) All of above
158. In Excel the Paste Special command lets you
     copy and paste
     (A) Multiply the selection by a copied value
     (B) Cell comments
     (C) Formatting options
     (D) The resulting values of a formula
     instead of the actual formula
159. In Excel the numbers in our worksheet look
     like this: 1000. You want them to look like
     this: $1,000.00. How can you accomplish
     this?
     (A) None of these
     (B) Select Format > Money from the menu
     (C) Click the Currency Style button on the
     formatting toolbar
     (D) You have to retype everything and
     manually add the dollar signs, commas,
     and decimals.
160. In Excel which of the following is not a valid
     data type in excel
     (A) Number (B) Character
     (C) Label (D) Date/time
161. Excel worksheet cells work very similarly to
     what common element of the windows
     graphical user interface
     (A) Option buttons (B) List boxes
     (C) Text boxes (D) Combo boxes
162. In Excel which of the following options is not
     located in the Page Setup dialog box?
     (A) Page Break Preview.
     (B) Page Orientation
     (C) Margins
     (D) Headers and Footers
163. In Excel one want to track the progress of the
     stock market on a daily basis. Which type of
     chart should one use?
     (A) Pie chart (B) Row chart
     (C) Line chart (D) Column chart
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 39
164. In Excel without using the mouse or the arrow
     keys, what is the fastest way of getting to cell
     A1 in a spreadsheet?
     (A) Press Ctrl +Home
     (B) Press Home
     (C) Press Shift + Home
     (D) Press Alt + Home
165. Which of the following methods cannot be
     used to edit the contents of a cell In Excel?
     (A) Press the Alt key
     (B) Clicking the formula bar
     (C) Pressing the F2 key
     (D) Double clicking the cell
166. In Excel if you begin typing an entry into a cell
     and then realize that you don’t want your entry
     placed into a cell, you
     (A) Press the Erase key
     (B) Press Esc
     (C) Press the Enter button
     (D) Press the Edit Formula button
167. In Excel default style for new data keyed in a
     new workbook is
     (A) Comma (B) Currency
     (C) Normal (D) Per cent
168. In Excel LEN function does what?
     (A) Compares the content in two cells
     (B) Counts the numbers of characters in a
     cell
     (C) Deletes extra space in text
     (D) All of above
169. In Excel this function converts miles to
     kilometers, kilograms to pounds, and so on
     (A) Convert (B) Product
     (C) Change (D) All of above
170. In Excel you can use the drag and drop
     method to
     (A) Copy cell contents
     (B) Delete cells contents
     (C) Add cell contents
     (D) All of above
171. In Excel to balance your checkbook, your best
     method is
     (A) Copy your check amounts into Excel so
     that you’ll have a neat printout to work
     on
     (B) Use Excel to check your arithmetic
     (C) Download the Checkbook register
     templates from Templates on Microsoft
     Office Online
     (D) All of above
172. In Excel which formula can add the all the
     numeric values in a range of cells, ignoring
     those which are not numeric, and place the
     resulting a difference cell
     (A) Count (B) Average
     (C) Sum (D) None of above
173. In Excel to name a constant, you use the
     …… dialog box
     (A) Create names (B) Define name
     (C) Paste name (D) Format cells
174. In Excel to cancel the marquee, press
     (A) Ctrl + End (B) End
     (C) Esc (D) Shift + Esc
175. In Excel the function calculates depreciation
     at the same amount each year over an
     asset’s useful life
     (A) DB (fixed-declining balance)
     (B) SLN (straight line)
     (C) DDB (double-declining)
     (D) All of above
176. In Excel the following is not an underline
     option in the format cells dialog box
     (A) Double
     (B) Single Engineering
     (C) Single Accounting
     (D) Double Accounting
177. In Excel to center worksheet titles across a
     range of cell, you must
     (A) Select the cells containing the title text
     and use the fill handle to center the text
     across a range of cells
     (B) Widen the columns
     (C) Select the cells containing the title text
     and use the fill handle to center the text
     across a range of cells
     (D) Widen the column
178. In Excel when integrating Ms-Word and Excel,
     Word is usually the
     (A) Server (B) Source
     (C) Client (D) None
179. In Excel Charts tips can
     (A) Show the formatting of a data label
     (B) Show the name of a data series
     (C) Show the value of data point
     (D) Both (B) and (C)
180. In Excel the Name box
     (A) Shows the location of the previously
     active cell
     (B) Appears t the left of the formula bar
     (C) Appears below the status bar
     (D) Appears below the menu bar
     40 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
181. In Excel how do you change column width to
     fit the contents?
     (A) Single-click the boundary to the left to
     the column heading
     (B) Double click the boundary to the right of
     the column heading
     (C) Press Alt and single click anywhere in
     the column
     (D) All of above
182. In Excel when you work with large
     worksheets, you may need to
     (A) Size the worksheet to fit on the specific
     number of pages
     (B) Add and remove page breaks
     (C) Specify only certain print areas
     (D) All of above
183. In Excel Hyperlinks cannot be
     (A) Special shapes like stars and banners
     (B) Drawing objects like rectangles ovals
     (C) Pictures
     (D) All can be hyperlinks
184. In Excel you can use the horizontal and
     vertical scroll bars to
     (A) Split a worksheet into two panes
     (B) View different rows and columns
     (C) Edit the contents of a cell
     (D) View different worksheets
185. What do we call a computer program that
     organizes data in rows and columns of cells?
     You might use this type of program to keep a
     record of the money you earned moving
     lawns over the summer.
     (A) Spreadsheet program
     (B) Database program
     (C) Word processor program
     (D) Desktop publisher program
186. In Excel you can add an image to a template
     by clicking the Insert Picture From File button
     on the …. Toolbar.
     (A) Standard (B) Formatting
     (C) Drawing (D) Picture
187. In Excel to drag a selected range of data to
     another worksheet in the same workbook,
     use the
     (A) Tab key (B) Alt key
     (C) Shift key (D) Ctrl key
188. In Excel when creating a vertical page break
     (A) The active cell must be A1
     (B) The active cell can be anywhere in the
     worksheet
     (C) The active cell must be in row 1
     (D) The active cell must be in column A
189. In Excel to activate the previous cell in a pre￾selected range, press
     (A) The Alt key (B) The Tab key
     (C) The Enter key (D) None of above
190. In Excel when the formula bar is activated,
     you can see
     (A) The Edit Formula button
     (B) The Cancel button
     (C) The Enter button (D) All of above
191. In a worksheet you can select
     (A) Etire worksheet (B) Rows
     (C) Columns (D) All of the above
192. When you print preview a worksheet
     (A) the entire worksheet is displayed
     (B) the selected range is displayed
     (C) the active portion of the worksheet is
     displayed
     (D) All of the above
193. In Excel to access the Go To Special feature,
     you can press
     (A) Ctrl + G (B) Ctrl + O
     (C) Ctrl + Shift + G (D) Ctrl + 1
194. In Excel which do you press to enter the
     current date in a cell?
     (A) Ctrl + Shift + : (B) Ctrl + ;
     (C) Ctrl + F10 (D) All of above
195. In Excel it is acceptable to let long text flow
     into adjacent cells on a worksheet when
     (A) Data will be entered in the adjacent cells
     (B) No data will be entered in the adjacent cells
     (C) There is no suitable abbreviation for the
     text
     (D) There is not time to format the text
196. In Excel you can group noncontiguous
     worksheets with
     (A) The group button on the standard
     toolbar
     (B) The shift key and the mouse
     (C) The ctrl key and mouse
     (D) The alt+enter key
197. In Excel Weight refers to
     (A) The print density of characters
     (B) The height of the printed character
     (C) Upright or slanted shape
     (D) The design and appearance of
     characters
198. When you link data maintained in Excel
     workbook to a Word document
     (A) The Word document cannot be edited
     (B) The Word document contains a refe￾rence to the original source application
     (C) The word document must contain a
     hyperlink
     (D) The word document contains a copy of
     the actual data
199. In Excel when you see a cell with a red
     triangle in the top right corner, what does
     this signify?
     (A) There is an error in the cell
     (B) There is a comment associated with the cell
     (C) The font color for text in the cell is red
     (D) A formula cannot be entered into the cell
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 41
200. In Excel to hold row and column titles in
     places so that they do not scroll when you
     scroll a worksheet, click the
     (A) Unfreeze panes command on the
     window menu
     (B) Freeze panes command on the window
     menu
     (C) Hold titles command on the edit menu
     (D) Split command on the window menu
201. In Excel which of these is a quick way to copy
     formatting from a selected cell to two other
     cells on the same worksheet?
     (A) Use Ctrl to select all three cells, then
     click the paste button on the standard
     toolbar
     (B) Copy the selected cell, then select the
     other two cells, click style on the Format
     menu, then click Modify
     (C) Click format painter on the Formatting
     toolbar twice then click in each cell you
     want to copy the formatting to
     (D) All of above
202. To edit data in an embedded Excel
     worksheet object in a Word document
     (A) Use the Excel menu bar and toolbars
     inside the word application
     (B) Edit the hyperlink
     (C) Edit the data in a Excel source
     application
     (D) Use the Word menu bar and toolbars
203. In Excel Status indicators are located on the
     (A) Vertical scroll bar
     (B) Horizontal scroll bar
     (C) Formula bar
     (D) Standard toolbar
204. In Excel Rounding errors can occur
     (A) When you use multiplication, division,
     or exponentiation in a formula
     (B) When you use addition and subtraction
     in a formula
     (C) Because excel uses hidden decimal
     places in computation
     (D) When you show the results of formulas
     with different decimal places that the
     calculated results
205. In Excel one can copy data or formulas
     (A) With the copy, paste and cut commands
     on the edit menu
     (B) With commands on ta shortcut menu
     (C) With buttons on the standard toolbars
     (D) All of the above
206. In Excel you cannot link excel worksheet data
     to a word document
     (A) With the right drag method
     (B) With a hyperlink
     (C) With the copy and paste special
     commands
     (D) With the copy and paste buttons on the
     standard toolbar
207. An excel workbook is a collection of
     (A) Workbooks
     (B) Worksheets
     (C) Charts
     (D) Worksheets and charts
208. Excel files have a default extension of
     (A) Xls (B) Xlw
     (C) Wk1 (D) 123
209. In Excel one can use the format painter
     multiple times before one turn it off by
     (A) You can use the format painter button
     on ly one time when you click it
     (B) Double clicking the format painter button
     (C) Pressing the Ctrl key and clicking the
     format painter button
     (D) Pressing the Alt key and clicking the
     format painter button
210. In Excel Status indicators are located on the
     (A) Vertical scroll bar
     (B) Horizontal scroll bar
     (C) Formula bar
     (D) Formatting toolbar
211. In Excel you can open the scenario Manager
     dialog box by choosing scenarios from the
     ….. menu.
     (A) View (B) Insert
     (C) Format (D) Tools
212. In Excel you can open the Sort dialog box by
     choosing Sort from the ….. menu
     (A) View (B) Format
     (C) Tools (D) Data
213. In Excel to edit in an embedded excel
     worksheet object in a word document
     (A) Use the excel menu bar and toolbars
     inside the word application
     (B) Edit the hyperlink
     (C) Edit the data in a excel source
     application
     (D) Use the word menu bar and toolbars
214. In Excel to create a formula, you can use
     (A) Values but not cell references
     (B) Cell references but not values
     (C) Values or cell references although not
     both at the same time
     (D) Value and cell references
215. In Excel when working in the page break
     preview, you can
     (A) View exactly where each page break
     occurs
     (B) Add or remove page breaks
     (C) Change the print area
     (D) All of above
216. In Excel A data map is helpful
     (A) When you have too much data to chart
     (B) To show a geographic distribution of
     data
     42 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
     (C) To compare data points
     (D) To show changes in data over time
217. In Excel Rounding errors can occur
     (A) When you use multiplication, division or
     exponentiation in a formula
     (B) When you use addition and subtraction
     in a formula
     (C) Because Excel uses hidden decimal
     places in computation
     (D) When you show the results of formulas
     with different decimal places than the
     calculated results
218. In Excel you can copy data or formulas
     (A) With the copy, paste and cut commands
     on the edit menu
     (B) With commands on a shortcut menu
     (C) With buttons on the standard toolbar
     (D) All of the above
219. In Excel Hyperlinks can be
     (A) Text (B) Drawing objects
     (C) Pictures (D) All of above
220. In Excel to activate the previous cell in a pre￾selected range, press
     (A) The Alt key (B) The Tab key
     (C) The Enter key (D) None of the above
221. In Excel when the formula bar is active, you
     can see
     (A) The edit formula button
     (B) The cancel button
     (C) The enter button
     (D) All of the above
222. To copy formatting from one area in a
     worksheet and apply it to another area you
     would use
     (A) The Edit>Copy Format and Edit>Paste
     Format commands form the menu.
     (B) The Copy and Apply Formatting dialog
     box, located under the Format>Copy and
     Apply menu.
     (C) There is no way to copy and apply
     formatting in Excel – You have to do it
     manually
     (D) The Format Painter button on the
     standard toolbar
223. In Excel In a worksheet you can select
     (A) The entire worksheet
     (B) Rows
     (C) Columns
     (D) All of the above
224. When you link data maintained in an excel
     workbook to a word document
     (A) The word document cannot be edit
     (B) The word document contains a
     reference to the original source
     application
     (C) The word document must contain a
     hyperlink
     (D) The word document contains a copy of
     the actual data
225. Which area in an excel window allows
     entering values and formulas ?
     (A) Title bar (B) Menu bar
     (C) Formula bar (D) Standard toolbar
     Answer Sheet
226. (C) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (C) 5. (C)
227. (D) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (B) 10. (D)
228. (D) 12. (D) 13. (C) 14. (B) 15. (C)
229. (A) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (C)
230. (D) 22. (B) 23. (C) 24. (D) 25. (C)
231. (D) 27. (A) 28. (D) 29. (D) 30. (B)
232. (C) 32. (D) 33. (B) 34. (D) 35. (D)
233. (B) 37. (B) 38. (C) 39. (D) 40. (C)
234. (D) 42. (B) 43. (C) 44. (A) 45. (C)
235. (B) 47. (B) 48. (A) 49. (D) 50. (A)
236. (B) 52. (D) 53. (D) 54. (D) 55. (B)
237. (B) 57. (C) 58. (B) 59. (D) 60. (A)
238. (D) 62. (D) 63. (A) 64. (B) 65. (C)
239. (C) 67. (D) 68. (D) 69. (A) 70. (A)
240. (A) 72. (A) 73. (A) 74. (A) 75. (B)
241. (D) 77. (D) 78. (D) 79. (D) 80. (D)
242. (C) 82. (D) 83. (C) 84. (A) 85. (C)
243. (A) 87. (A) 88. (B) 89. (D) 90. (D)
244. (B) 92. (B) 93. (C) 94. (C) 95. (D)
245. (B) 97. (A) 98. (D) 99. (D) 100. (C)
246. (A) 102. (D) 103. (A) 104. (B) 105. (A)
247. (A) 107. (D) 108. (D) 109. (D) 110. (B)
248. (B) 112. (B) 113. (D) 114. (B) 115. (B)
249. (A) 117. (D) 118. (A) 119. (C) 120. (B)
250. (B) 122. (D) 123. (D) 124. (D) 125. (B)
251. (D) 127. (C) 128. (D) 129. (D) 130. (B)
252. (D) 132. (D) 133. ( A) 134. (B) 135. (B)
253. (C) 137. (A) 138. (C) 139. (D) 140. (A)
254. (D) 142. (D) 143. (A) 144. (B) 145. (C)
255. (D) 147. (D) 148. (A) 149. (B) 150. (B)
256. (C) 152. (B) 153. (A) 154. (C) 155. (A)
257. (C) 157. (D) 158. (D) 159. (C) 160. (B)
258. (C) 162. (A) 163. (C) 164. (A) 165. (A)
259. (B) 167. (C) 168. (A) 169. (A) 170. (A)
260. (C) 172. (C) 173. (B) 174. (C) 175. (B)
261. (B) 177. (A) 178. (C) 179. (D) 180. (B)
262. (B) 182. (D) 183. (D) 184. (B) 185. (A)
263. (D) 187. (D) 188. (C) 189. (D) 190. (D)
264. (D) 192. (D) 193. (A) 194. (B) 195. (B)
265. (C) 197. (A) 198. (B) 199. (B) 200. (B)
266. (C) 202. (A) 203. (C) 204. (A) 205. (D)
267. (D) 207. (D) 208. (A) 209. (B) 210. (C)
268. (D) 212. (D) 213. (A) 214. (D) 215. (D)
269. (B) 217. (A) 218. (D) 219. (D) 220. (D)
270. (D) 222. (D) 223. (B) 224. (B) 225. (C)
     MICROSOFT POWERPOINT
271. In Microsoft PowerPoint to add a header or
     footer to your handout, you can use
     (A) The title master
     (B) The slide master
     (C) The handout master
     (D) All of above
272. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following will not
     advance the slides in a slide show view
     (A) Esc key (B) The spacebar
     (C) The Enter key (D) The mouse button
273. In Microsoft PowerPoint to select all of the
     boxes of an organization chart
     (A) Clicking and edit and select all
     (B) Right click the chart background and
     then click select all
     (C) Press and hold the SHIFT key and click
     each box
     (D) All of above
274. In Microsoft PowerPoint what are lines, curve,
     freeform, and scribble
     (A) Emphasis effects that can be applied to
     animations
     (B) Types of custom motion paths
     (C) Predefined entrance and exit effects
     (D) All of the above
275. When using PowerPoint, to play a PowerPoint
     show for previewing the show, select
     (A) View, slide sorter (B) View, slide
     (C) View, slide show (D) View outline
276. In Microsoft PowerPoint in order to see all
     the slides on one screen use
     (A) View, slide sorter
     (B) View, slide
     (C) View, master
     (D) View, slide show
277. In Microsoft PowerPoint the best place to
     find animated images for your presentation
     (A) Microsoft online
     (B) Word clipart
     (C) PowerPoint tools and ins
     (D) All of the above
278. In Microsoft PowerPoint the easy way to apply
     varied animations to test on slides
     (A) Apply effects in the custom animation
     text pane
     (B) Apply an animation scheme
     (C) Customize bullets with animated clipart
     (D) All of above
279. In Microsoft PowerPoint using a custom
     animation effect, how do you make text
     appear on a slide by letter
     (A) Apply the animation scheme fade in one
     by one.
     (B) Apply an entrance effect, and then set it
     to by letter in the effect option dialog box*
     (C) Apply the fly in entrance to the text, and
     then set its speed to very slow.
     (D) All of above
280. In Microsoft PowerPoint to exit the
     PowerPoint application, you should
     (A) Click the application minimize button
     (B) Click the document close button
     (C) Double click the application control
     menu icon
     (D) Double click the document control menu
     icon
281. In Microsoft PowerPoint you can create a new
     presentation by completing all of the following
     except
     (A) Clicking the new button on the standard
     toolbar
     (B) Clicking file, new
     (C) Clicking file open (D) Pressing Ctrl + N
282. In Microsoft PowerPoint you have
     customized a design template in one
     presentation and you want to use it in another
     presentation. What the best way to do this?
     (A) Use the browse feature in the slide
     design task pane to find the file that has
     your design template and apply it to the
     current file.
     (B) Copy and paste the slide with the design
     template you want to include the new
     presentation; inserted slide will inherit
     the design
     44 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
     (C) Save the presentation that has the
     design template with a new name, and
     then use a new file to your presentation
     (D) All of the above.
283. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following
     displays when an image is selected
     (A) Add clip art only if it relates to your topic
     (B) Be sure to place at least one clipart
     image per slide
     (C) Resize the image so it takes up as much
     space as your text
     (D) Both (A) and (B)
284. The Microsoft clip gallery allows you to
     (A) Add word art images to a slide
     (B) Spell check your presentation
     (C) Add clip art images to a slide or slides
     (D) Add slides to a presentation
285. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following
     command select all object at one time when
     selecting multiple objects to be deleted
     (A) Alt + A (B) Ctrl + A
     (C) Shift + Enter (D) Edit, Select All
286. In Microsoft PowerPoint to edit the text within
     the boxes of an organization chart, you
     (A) Select the box and text, then make
     changes
     (B) Select the box, then make the dchanges
     (C) Highlight the text, them make the
     changes
     (D) (A) and (B) both
287. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following allow
     you to select more than one slide in a
     presentation
     (A) Alt + Click each slide
     (B) Shift + drag each slide
     (C) Shift + Click each slide
     (D) Ctrl + Click each slide
288. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following options
     in the printer dialog box would you select to
     prit slides 5 and 12 in a presentation?
     (A) Slides (B) Custom shows
     (C) Current slide (D) All of the above
289. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following
     toolbars provides different options in various
     master views
     (A) Common tasks toolbar
     (B) Drawing toolbar
     (C) Formatting toolbar
     (D) Standard toolbar
290. In Microsoft PowerPoint you can tell when
     an object is active because
     (A) The object is highlighted
     (B) Eight small sizing handles appear
     surrounding the text
     (C) A box frame appears surrounding the
     text
     (D) (B) and (C) both
291. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following is not
     an option when printing handouts
     (A) Six slides per page
     (B) Five slides per page
     (C) Three slides per page
     (D) Two slides per page
292. In Microsoft PowerPoint the best way to
     design the layout for your slides
     (A) Create layouts for slides, handouts and
     notes using the Master Layout dialog
     box in slide master view
     (B) For each new slide, select a layout from
     the Slide Layout task pane
     (C) Apply templates from the Slide Design
     task pane
     (D) None of above
293. In Microsoft PowerPoint any and every
     command can be found on the
     (A) Drawing toolbar (B) Formatting toolbar
     (C) Standard toolbar (D) Menu bar
294. In Microsoft PowerPoint slide that is used to
     introduce a topic and set the tone for the
     presentation is called the
     (A) Table slide (B) Graph slide
     (C) Bullet slide (D) Title slide
295. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following
     features should you use when typing in he
     notes text box
     (A) Slide shows (B) Insert
     (C) Slide master (D) Zoom
296. In Microsoft PowerPoint following should be
     used when you want to add a slide to an
     existing presentation
     (A) File, add a new slide
     (B) Insert, new slide
     (C) File, open
     (D) File, new
297. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following is the
     default page setup orientation for notes
     pages, outlines and handouts
     (A) Vertical (B) Landscape
     (C) Portrait (D) None of above
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 45
298. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following is the
     default page setup orientation for slides in
     PowerPoint
     (A) Vertical (B) Landscape
     (C) Portrait (D) None of above
299. In Microsoft PowerPoint are symbols used
     to identify items in a list
     (A) Icons (B) Markers
     (C) Bullets (D) Graphics
300. In Microsoft PowerPoint toolbars that are
     displayed by default in the PowerPoint
     window includes
     (A) Menu bar, standard toolbar, formatting
     toolbar, drawing toolbar, status bar
     (B) Menu bar, standard toolbar, formatting
     toolbar, drawing toolbar, status bar
     (C) Standard toolbar, formatting toolbar,
     drawing toolbar, status bar
     (D) Menu bar, standard toolbar, status bar,
     drawing toolbar
301. In Microsoft PowerPoint view that displays
     the slides on a presentation as miniature
     representations of the slides is called
     (A) Slide show (B) Slide sorter view
     (C) Notes page view (D) Outline view
302. In Microsoft PowerPoint view that displays
     only text (title and bullets) is
     (A) Slide show (B) Slide sorter view
     (C) Notes page view (D) Outline view
303. In Microsoft PowerPoint the entry effect as
     one slide replaces another in a show is
     called
     (A) Animation
     (B) Slide transition
     (C) Custom animation
     (D) Preset animation
304. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following
     presentation elements can you modify using
     the slide master
     (A) Slide comments
     (B) Slide transitions
     (C) Speaker note font and color
     (D) All of above
305. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following
     provides a printed copy of your presentation
     (A) Outline
     (B) Speaker notes
     (C) Audience handouts
     (D) All of the above
306. In Microsoft PowerPoint slide show options
     available to the presenter include all of the
     following except
     (A) Transitions command
     (B) Speaker notes command
     (C) Meeting reminder command
     (D) Navigation commands
307. In Microsoft PowerPoint presentation
     designs regulate the formatting and layout
     for the slide and are commonly called
     (A) Design plates (B) Templates
     (C) Placeholders (D) Blueprints
308. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following
     bypasses the print dialog box when printing
     individual slides or an entire presentation
     (A) File, print, preview
     (B) The print button
     (C) File, print
     (D) Ctrl + P
309. In Microsoft PowerPoint you can show the
     shortcut menu during the slide show by
     (A) Clicking the shortcut button on the
     formatting toolbar
     (B) Right clicking the current slide
     (C) Clicking an icon on the current slide
     (D) (A) and (B) both
310. In Microsoft PowerPoint auto clipart is a
     feature that
     (A) Automatically places clipart in your
     presentation
     (B) Scans your presentation for incorrect
     spelling in your words on each slide
     (C) Scans your presentation for incorrect
     spelling in Word Arts objects
     (D) All of above
311. Which file format can be added to a
     PowerPoint show?
     (A) .jpg (B) .giv
     (C) .wav (D) All of the above
312. In Microsoft PowerPoint two kind of sound
     effects files that can be added to the
     presentation are
     (A) .wav files and .mid files
     (B) .wav files and .gif files
     (C) .wav files and .jpg files
     (D) .jpg files and .gif files
313. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following
     includes special effects that can be applied
     to drawing objects
     (A) Gradient fills (B) Line color and style
     (C) Rotating (D) All of above
     46 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
314. In Microsoft PowerPoint the term used when
     a clip art image changes the direction it faces
     (A) Group (B) Flip
     (C) Rotate (D) (A) and (B) both true
315. In Microsoft PowerPoint the term used when
     you press and hold the left mouse key and
     move the mouse around the slide
     (A) Highlighting (B) Dragging
     (C) Selecting (D) (B) and (C) both true
316. In Microsoft PowerPoint size of a table object
     (A) Is dependent on the amount of text
     within the table
     (B) Is determined by the presentation
     design but can be changed
     (C) Is determined by the presentation
     design and cannot be changed
     (D) (A) and (C) both are true
317. In Microsoft PowerPoint size of an
     organization chart object
     (A) Is determined by the presentation
     design and cannot be changed
     (B) Is determined by the presentation
     design but can be changed in
     PowerPoint
     (C) Is dependent on the amount of text
     within the organization chart
     (D) Both (A) and (C) are true
318. In Microsoft PowerPoint special effects used
     to introduce slides in a presentation are
     called
     (A) Effects (B) Custom animations
     (C) Transitions (D) Present animations
319. In Microsoft PowerPoint you can edit an
     embedded organization chart object by
     (A) Clicking edit object
     (B) Double clicking the organization chart
     object
     (C) Right clicking the chart object, then
     clicking edit MS-Organizaiton Chart
     object
     (D) (B) and (C) are true
320. In Microsoft PowerPoint the term used when
     you press and hold the left mouse key and
     more the mouse around the slide
     (A) Highlighting (B) Dragging
     (C) Selecting (D) Moving
321. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following is not
     one of PowerPoint’s views
     (A) Slide show view (B) Slide view
     (C) Presentation view (D) Outline view
322. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following format
     options should be used to display dollars
     on an axis
     (A) Normal (B) Percentage
     (C) Currency (D) Comma
323. In Microsoft PowerPoint to maintain the
     perspective (height and width ratio) of an
     object when resizing, you need to
     (A) Press and hold the shift key while
     dragging a corner sizing handle
     (B) Press and hold the alt + ctrl keys while
     dragging a middle handle
     (C) Drag a corner sizing handle
     (D) (A) and (C) both true
324. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following is/are
     true about rulers and guides
     (A) Rulers and guides can be turned on or
     off
     (B) Rulers and guides print on the slide
     (C) Rulers and guides help place objects
     on the slide
     (D) (A) and (C) both true
325. In Microsoft PowerPoint to edit the text within
     the boxes of an organization chart, you
     (A) Select the box and text, then make the
     changes
     (B) Select the box, then make the changes
     (C) Highlight the text, then make the
     changes
     (D) Highlight the text then make the change
326. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following best
     describes serifs
     (A) Serifs on characters help to differentiate
     between similar looking letters
     (B) Serifs fonts are best for viewing test at a
     distance
     (C) Serifs are fine cross strokes that appear
     at the bottom and top of a letter
     (D) Serif font are very simple in appearance
327. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following options
     changes the fill color of an object back to the
     default color
     (A) Template (B) Automatic
     (C) Patterns (D) Fill colors
328. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following you
     use to add shading to a drawing object on or
     an auto shape object
     (A) Text box tool (B) Line tool
     (C) Fill color (D) (B) and (C) both true
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 47
329. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following tools
     enable you to add text to a slide without using
     the standard placeholders
     (A) Text box tool (B) Line tool;
     (C) Fill color (D) Auto shapes tool
330. In Microsoft PowerPoint cell is defined as
     (A) The intersection of a column and a row
     (B) An input box
     (C) A rectangular marker
     (D) All of the above
331. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following must
     be used with the mouse when you want to
     resize an image from the center and keep it
     proportioned
     (A) The space bar (B) The alt key
     (C) The ctrl key (D) The shift key
332. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following should
     be used with the mouse when you want to
     draw a perfect shape
     (A) The spacebar (B) The alt key
     (C) The ctrl key (D) The shift key
333. In Microsoft PowerPoint on which part of the
     chart are the values entered in a data sheet
     displayed
     (A) The title area (B) The legend
     (C) The y-axis (D) The x-axis
334. In Microsoft PowerPoint one way to make a
     PowerPoint slide display animations is to
     (A) Select the slide in normal view; and click
     Format, Animation
     (B) Click the PowerPoint window and move
     it around vigorously with the mouse for
     a manual animation effect
     (C) Select the slide in slide sorter view, right
     click and choose preset animations
     from the shortcut menu
     (D) PowerPoint does not have an animation
     feature
335. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following is not
     a way to cut ext
     (A) Select the text and press the delete
     button
     (B) Select the text and select Edit, Cut from
     the menu
     (C) Select the text and click the Cut button
     on the toolbar
     (D) Select the text and press Ctrl + X
336. In Microsoft PowerPoint which of the
     following can you use to add times to the
     slides in a presentation
     (A) Slice Show menu
     (B) Rehearse timing button
     (C) Slide transition button
     (D) All of the above
337. In Microsoft PowerPoint in order to edit a
     chart, you can
     (A) Triple click the chart object
     (B) Click and drag the chart object
     (C) Double click the chart object
     (D) Click the chart objects
338. In Microsoft PowerPoint an image is
     selected, it displays which of the following?
     (A) Two corner handles
     (B) Six middle handles
     (C) Eight sizing handles
     (D) Six boxes
339. In Microsoft PowerPoint material consisting
     of text and numbers is best presented as
     (A) A table slide (B) A bullet slide
     (C) A title slide (D) All of the above
340. In Microsoft PowerPoint is a motion path
     (A) A type of animation entrance effect
     (B) A method of advancing slides
     (C) A method of moving items on a slide
     (D) All of the above
341. In Microsoft PowerPoint what is a slide-title
     master pair?
     (A) The title area and text area of a specific
     slide
     (B) A slide master and title master merged
     into a single slide
     (C) A slide master and title master for a
     specific design template
     (D) All of above
342. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following should
     you use if you want all the slide in the
     presentation to have the same “look”
     (A) The slide layout option
     (B) Add a slide option
     (C) Outline view
     (D) A presentation design template
343. In Microsoft PowerPoint in the context of
     animations, what is a trigger?
     (A) An action button that advances to the
     next slide
     (B) An item on the slide that performs an
     action when clicked
     (C) The name of a motion path
     (D) All of above
344. In Microsoft PowerPoint if you have a
     PowerPoint show you created and want to
     send using email to another teacher you can
     add the show to your email message as
     (A) Inclusion (B) Attachment
     (C) Reply (D) Forward
     48 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
345. In Microsoft PowerPoint in order to edit a
     chart, you can
     (A) Triple click the chart object
     (B) Click and drag the chart object
     (C) Double click the chart object
     (D) Click the chart object
346. In Microsoft PowerPoint to exit the PowerPoint
     (A) Click the application minimize button
     (B) Click the document close button
     (C) Double click the applications control
     menu icon
     (D) Double click the document control menu
     icon
347. In Microsoft PowerPoint to preview a motion
     path effect using the custom animation task
     pane, you should
     (A) Click the play button
     (B) Click the show effect button
     (C) Double click the motion path
     (D) All of above
348. In Microsoft PowerPoint you can create a new
     presentation by completing all of the
     following except
     (A) Clicking the new button on the standard
     toolbar
     (B) Clicking file, new
     (C) Clicking file open
     (D) Pressing Ctrl + N
349. Which of the following will not advance the
     slides in a slide show view?
     (A) The esc key (B) The space bar
     (C) The enter key (D) The mouse button
350. To import text from a word document that
     uses headings into a PowerPoint
     presentation:
     (A) This can not be done in PowerPoint
     (B) Click Insert, Slides from Outline
     (C) Click Import, Word Document Headings
     (D) Click File, New, Presentation from Word
     Headings
351. Format painter
     (A) To paint pretty pictures on your slides
     (B) To copy formatting from one object or
     piece of text and then apply it elsewhere
     (C) To change the background color of your
     slides
     (D) To paint pretty pictures on background
     of slides
352. Slide show options available to the presenter
     include all of the following except
     (A) Transitions command
     (B) Speaker notes command
     (C) Meeting minder command
     (D) Navigation commands
353. Which of the following is an example for
     automatic text formatting
     (A) Underlining hyperlink
     (B) Adjusting extra space
     (C) Replacing two -’s with an em hyphens
     (D) All of above
354. Which of the following is not a way to create
     a new presentation?
     (A) Using the Scan-In Slides feature
     (B) From scratch (create a blank
     presentation
     (C) Using a template
     (D) Using the auto content wizard
355. The quickest way to create a PowerPoint
     presentation is to use the
     (A) Word for windows templates
     (B) Auto creation wizard
     (C) Auto content wizard
     (D) Presentation wizard
356. Which of the following toolbars provide
     different options in various master views?
     (A) Common tasks toolbar
     (B) Drawing toolbar
     (C) Formatting toolbar
     (D) Standard toolbar
357. How can you create a uniform appearance
     by adding a background image to all slides?
     (A) Create a template
     (B) Edit the slide master
     (C) Use the autocorrect wizard
     (D) All of the above
358. How do you create speaker note pages that
     show the slides, related notes, and your
     company logo on each page?
     (A) Edit the notes master and add your
     company logo
     (B) Edit the slide master and insert your
     company logo and notes pane
     (C) Edit the handout master to include your
     company logo and one slide per page
     with additional note space
     (D) All of the above
359. Which option on the custom animation task
     pane allows you to apply a preset or custom
     motion path?
     (A) Add effect (B) Emphasis
     (C) Animate now (D) All of the above
360. What is the term used when a clip art image
     changes the direction of faces?
     (A) Group (B) Flip
     (C) Rotate (D) All of the above
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 49
361. The slide that is used to introduce a topic
     and set the tone for the presentation is called
     the
     (A) Table slide (B) Graph slide
     (C) Bullet slide (D) Title slide
362. Which of the following features should you
     use when typing in the notes text box?
     (A) Slide show (B) Insert
     (C) Slide maser (D) Zoom
363. Which option allows you to select line, curve,
     freeform or scribble tools?
     (A) Create effect
     (B) Insert motion path
     (C) Draw custom path
     (D) All of the above
364. In Microsoft PowerPoint you can embed a
     MS-Organization Chart in a slide by
     (A) Clicking the object command on the edit
     menu
     (B) Clicking the object command on the edit
     menu
     (C) Clicking the insert new slide button the
     standard toolbar, then double click the
     organization chart button on the
     formatting toolbar
     (D) Clicking the MS-Organization Chart
     button on the standard toolbar
365. In Microsoft PowerPoint to select one
     hyperlink after another during a slide
     presentation, what do you press?
     (A) Tab (B) Ctrl + K
     (C) Ctrl + h (D) All of above
366. In Microsoft PowerPoint which application
     view works best for adding slide transitions?
     (A) Slide show view(B) Slide sorter view
     (C) Slide view (D) Notes view
367. Which of the following views is the best view
     to use when setting transition effects for all
     slides in a presentation ?
     (A) Slide sorter view (B) Notes page view
     (C) Slide view (D) Outline view
368. Which option can be used to set custom
     timings for slides in a presentation?
     (A) Slider Timings (B) Slider Timer
     (C) Rehearsal (D) Slide Show Setup
369. Which of the following should be used when
     you want to add a slide to an existing
     presentation?
     (A) File, add a new slide
     (B) Insert, New slide
     (C) File Open
     (D) File, New
370. Which of the following tool enables you to
     add text to a slide without using the standard
     placeholders?
     (A) Text tool box (B) Line tool
     (C) Drawing tool (D) Auto shapes tool
371. Want your logo in the same position on every
     slide, automatically. Insert it on the
     (A) Handout master (B) Notes master
     (C) Slide master (D) All of the above
372. Which of the following views is the best view
     to use when setting transition effects for all
     slides in a presentation?
     (A) Slide sorter view (B) Notes pages view
     (C) Slide view (D) Outline view
373. Objects on the slide that hold text are called
     (A) Placeholders (B) Object holders
     (C) Auto layouts (D) Text holders
374. Which of the following provides a means of
     printing out feature notes with a miniature
     slide on a printed page?
     (A) Slide with animation
     (B) Outline view
     (C) Notes page
     (D) Audience handout
375. Which command brings you to the first slide
     in your presentation?
     (A) Next slide button (B) Page up
     (C) Ctrl + Home (D) Ctrl + End
376. In normal view, how can you quickly change
     to handout master view?
     (A) Click the outline tab and select handout
     master view
     (B) Press the shift key and click the handout
     master view button
     (C) On the view menu, click slide sorter, and
     click handouts.
     (D) All of above
377. How can you quickly reinstate a deleted
     footer placeholder in master view?
     (A) Create a new slide master
     (B) Re-apply the footer placeholder
     (C) Re-apply the slide layout
     (D) All of the above
378. Which of the following can you use to add
     times to the slides in a presentation?
     (A) Slide show menu
     (B) Rehearse timings button
     (C) Slide transition button
     (D) All of the above
379. Objects on the slide that hold text are called
     (A) Placeholders (B) Object holders
     (C) Auto layout (D) Text holders
     50 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
380. You have got a bunch of digital holiday photo
     you want to put into a slide show. What the
     quickest method?
     (A) Apply a multiple-picture layout to several
     slides, and use the clipart icon on the
     slides to import your picture
     (B) On the insert menu, point to the picture,
     click from file, and select your picture in
     a group for each slide
     (C) On the insert menu, point the picture and
     click new photo album
     (D) All of the above
381. In Microsoft PowerPoint Line spacing refers
     to
     (A) The space between the lines of text
     (B) The height of the line
     (C) The length of the line
     (D) (A) and (C) both
382. In Microsoft PowerPoint which of the
     following uses the spelling and grammar
     feature to indicate an incorrect spelling?
     (A) The incorrect word appears in all capital
     letters
     (B) The incorrect word has a wavy red line
     under it
     (C) The incorrect word appears italicized
     (D) The incorrect word appears bold
383. In Microsoft PowerPoint in Microsoft
     PowerPoint which of the following bypasses
     the print dialog box when printing individual
     slides or an entire presentation?
     (A) File, Print Preview (B) The print button
     (C) File, print (D) Ctrl + P
384. In Microsoft PowerPoint how do you add
     degrees of transparency to shapes such as
     arrows, so that the slide background shows
     though?
     (A) Use #D style 4 button on the drawing
     toolbar
     (B) Use the Set Transparent Color button
     on the Picture toolbar
     (C) Use the Transparency slider in the
     Format AutoShapes dialog box
     (D) All of above
385. In Microsoft PowerPoint material consisting
     of text and numbers is best presented as
     (A) A table slide (B) A bullet slide
     (C) A title slide (D) All of above
386. In Microsoft PowerPoint auto clip art is a
     feature that
     (A) Automatically places clip art in your
     presentation
     (B) Scans your presentation for incorrect
     spelling of words on each slide
     (C) Scans your presentation for incorrect
     spelling in word art objects
     (D) All of the above
387. In Microsoft PowerPoint to select all the
     boxes of an organization chart
     (A) Click edit, select all
     (B) Right click the chart background click
     select all
     (C) Press and hold the shift key and click
     each box
     (D) All of the above
388. In Microsoft PowerPoint to adjust the width
     of table columns, you
     (A) Click table menu. Column width, then
     make adjustments
     (B) Drag the vertical gridline between two
     columns
     (C) Drag the column markers on the table
     ruler bar
     (D) Both (B) and (C)
389. In Microsoft PowerPoint to add a new row to
     a table you would
     (A) Click the insert rows command on the
     insert menu
     (B) Press the enter key
     (C) Click the insert rows button on the
     standard toolbar
     (D) None of the above
390. In Microsoft PowerPoint after moving a clip
     art image to a particular location on the slide,
     you can immediately reverse the action using
     the
     (A) Click the not do move object command
     on the edit menu
     (B) Click on the undo button
     (C) Click on redo button
     (D) All of above
391. In Microsoft PowerPoint you can edit an
     embedded organization chart object by
     (A) Clicking the edit object
     (B) Double clicking the organization chart
     object
     (C) Right clicking the chart object, then
     clicking edit MS-Organization Chart
     object
     (D) (B) and (C) both are true
392. You edit an embedded table object by
     (A) Clicking the edit sub command of the
     document object command on the edit
     menu
     (B) Double clicking the table object
     (C) Right clicking the table object, then
     clicking edit document on the edit menu
     (D) All of above
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393. In Microsoft PowerPoint you can embed a
     Microsoft Word tale in a slide by
     (A) Clicking the insert new slide button on
     the standard toolbar, then double
     clicking table
     (B) Clicking the insert Microsoft word table
     button on the formatting toolbar
     (C) Clicking the insert Microsoft word table
     button on the standard toolbar
     (D) Both (A) and (C)
394. In Microsoft PowerPoint you can embed a
     organization chart in a slide by
     (A) Clicking the object command on the edit
     menu
     (B) Clicking the insert new slide button on
     the standard toolbar, then double clicking
     the organization chart auto layout
     (C) Clicking the ms organization chart
     button on the formatting toolbar
     (D) Clicking the ms organization chart
     button on the standard toolbar
395. In Microsoft PowerPoint you can add multiple
     subordinates to a position by
     (A) Clicking the subordinate button as you
     press and hold shift
     (B) Clicking the subordinate button each
     and every time you add a subordinate
     (C) Clicking the subordinate button as many
     times as the desired boxes
     (D) All of above
396. How would you create the following diagram
     in PowerPoint
     (A) Use auto shapes and the drawing toolbar
     to create the diagram and design it
     (B) Open the diagram gallery from the
     drawing toolbar and choose this
     diagram type
     (C) Use the chart command on the insert
     menu to import the diagram
     (D) All of above
397. Which of the following provides a means of
     printing out features notes with a miniature
     slide on a printed page?
     (A) Slides with animation
     (B) Outline view
     (C) Notes page
     (D) Audience handout
398. Which command brings you to the first slide
     in your presentation?
     (A) Next slide button (B) Page up
     (C) Ctrl + home (D) Ctrl + end
399. In Microsoft PowerPoint you were giving your
     presentation, and you need to click a slide
     that’s few slides back. How do you get there?
     (A) Press ESC to get back into a normal
     view; click the slide thumbnail in normal
     view; then click the resume slide show
     button
     (B) Press backspace until your desired
     slide
     (C) Right click, point to go on the shortcut
     menu, point to by title, and click the slide
     you want to go to
     (D) All of above
400. In Microsoft PowerPoint which of the
     following should you do to bring a bullet back
     to a previous level?
     (A) Press the shift + tab keys
     (B) Press the shift key
     (C) Press the enter key
     (D) Press the tab key
401. In Microsoft PowerPoint good design
     determines
     (A) Credibility (B) Readability
     (C) First impression (D) All of above
402. In Microsoft PowerPoint your presentation is
     ready to go, but you don’t know if PowerPoint
     is installed on the computer, you will use to
     present with what’s the safe way
     (A) Save your presentation as a web page
     (B) Set up your presentation to be ”browse
     as a kiosk”
     (C) Use the Pack and Go wizard
     (D) All of the above
403. In Microsoft PowerPoint view that displays
     the slides of a presentation as miniature
     representations of the slides is called
     (A) Slide show (B) Slide sorter view
     (C) Notes page view (D) Outline view
404. In Microsoft PowerPoint view that displays
     only text (title and bullets) is
     (A) Slide show (B) Slide sorter view
     (C) Notes page view (D) Outline view
405. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following
     provides a printed copy of your presentation
     (A) Outlines (B) Speaker notes
     (C) Audience handouts (D) All of above
406. In Microsoft PowerPoint presentation
     designs regulate the formatting and layout
     for the slide and are commonly called
     (A) Design templates (B) Templates
     (C) Placeholders (D) Blueprints
     52 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
407. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following should
     you use if you want all the slides in the
     presentation to have the same look
     (A) The slid layout option
     (B) The add a slide option
     (C) Outline view
     (D) A presentation design template
408. In Microsoft PowerPoint the key deletes text
     before, or the left of, the insertion point
     (A) Backspace (B) Page up
     (C) Delete (D) Page down
409. Which of the following is not a transition
     effect?
     (A) Blinks diagonal (B) Dissolve
     (C) Fade through black (D) Blinds vertical
410. In Microsoft PowerPoint to create a
     PowerPoint presentation from a template
     (A) Click File, New, select the presentations
     tab and choose a template
     (B) Click File, New Template and choose a
     template
     (C) Import a presentation template from
     PowerPoint’s template wizard
     (D) Click Create Template from scratch,
     Now
411. In Microsoft PowerPoint to save a
     presentation you
     (A) click save on the windows start button
     (B) press Ctrl + F5
     (C) select File, Save from the menu
     (D) click the saver button on the formatting
     toolbar
412. In Microsoft PowerPoint to change font size
     of a selected slide title, you
     (A) Click the toolbars font dropdown arrow
     and choose the font you prefer
     (B) Click format, title and choose a font from
     the font tab
     (C) Click the toolbar’s increase font size
     button
     (D) Click title, new font, ok.
413. In Microsoft PowerPoint to change font size
     of a selected slide title, you
     (A) Click the toolbars Font dropdown arrow
     and choose the font you prefer
     (B) Click Format, Title and choose a font
     from the font tab
     (C) Click the toolbar’s Increase Font Size
     button
     (D) Click Title, New Font, OK
414. In Microsoft PowerPoint you can show the
     shortcut menu during the slide show by
     (A) Clicking the shortcut button in the
     formatting toolbar
     (B) Right clicking the current slide
     (C) Clicking an icon on the current slide
     (D) A and b
415. In Microsoft PowerPoint to insert a new slide
     in the current presentation, we can choose
     (A) Ctrl + M (B) Ctrl + N
     (C) Ctrl + O (D) Ctrl + F
416. Microsoft PowerPoint is a
     (A) Database program
     (B) Spreadsheet program
     (C) Presentation program
     (D) Word processing program
417. In Microsoft PowerPoint the name of the form
     used to input chart values
     (A) Datasheet (B) Microsoft Excel
     (C) Microsoft graph (D) Auto form
418. In Microsoft PowerPoint Right clicking
     something in PowerPoint
     (A) Deletes the object
     (B) Selects the object
     (C) Opens a shortcut menu listing for the
     object
     (D) Nothing he right mouse button for
     operation
419. In Microsoft PowerPoint after choosing a
     predefine template, …………. option has to
     be chosen to change a background color
     (A) Design template (B) Color scheme
     (C) Animation scheme (D) Color effects
420. In Microsoft PowerPoint ellipse Motion is a
     predefined
     (A) Design template (B) Color scheme
     (C) Animation scheme (D) None of these
421. In Microsoft PowerPoint we can replace a
     font on all slides with another font using the
     …. option
     (A) Edit, Fonts
     (B) Tools, Fonts
     (C) Tools, Replace Fonts
     (D) Format, Replace Fonts
422. In Microsoft PowerPoint special effects used
     to introduce slides in a presentation are
     called
     (A) Effects (B) Custom animations
     (C) Transitions (D) Preset animations
423. In Microsoft PowerPoint the key on the
     keyboard can be used to view slide show
     (A) F1 (B) F2
     (C) F5 (D) F10
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 53
424. In Microsoft PowerPoint it is the name of the
     form used to input chart values
     (A) Datasheet (B) Microsoft Excel
     (C) Microsoft graph (D) Auto form
425. Which of the following you must first complete
     in order to delete an object?
     (A) Double click the image
     (B) Select the image
     (C) Resize the image
     (D) Move the image to a new location
426. In Microsoft PowerPoint the term used to
     describe the separation of a clip art object
     into different parts so that it becomes a
     PowerPoint object
     (A) Embedding (B) Regrouping
     (C) Ungrouping (D) Grouping
427. In Microsoft PowerPoint auto shapes tool
     provides you with
     (A) Fancy text to place on your slide
     (B) usually found shapes
     (C) Any shape you want to add on a slide
     (D) Clip art that is related to your
     presentation
428. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following should
     be used when you want to add a slide to an
     existing presentation
     (A) File, add a new slide
     (B) Insert, new slide
     (C) File, open
     (D) File, new
429. An organization has a president, vice
     president, managers and supervisors. On
     what level of an organization chart are the
     vice presidents
     (A) Fourth level (B) Third level
     (C) Second level (D) First level
430. In Microsoft PowerPoint press animation
     effects allows you to
     (A) Add clip art images to your slides
     (B) Create a custom transition to the nect
     slide
     (C) Show bullet items as they are discussed
     (D) None of above
431. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following
     features allows you to view slides in a slide
     show without manually advancing each slide
     (A) Adding build effects
     (B) Setting slide times
     (C) Adding transitions
     (D) All of these
432. In Microsoft PowerPoint Animation schemes
     can be applied to ….. in the presentation
     (A) All slides (B) Select slides
     (C) Current slide (D) All of the above
433. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following feature
     allows you to select more than one slide in
     slide sorter view
     (A) Alt + Click each slide
     (B) Shift + drag each slide
     (C) Shift + Click each slide
     (D) Ctrl + Click each slide
434. In Microsoft PowerPoint one thing the
     common tasks button allows you to do is
     (A) Apply a design template to a slide
     (B) Insert a new slide
     (C) Choose a new layout for a slide
     (D) All of above
435. In Microsoft PowerPoint file which contains
     readymade styles that can be used for a
     presentations is called
     (A) Auto style (B) Template
     (C) Wizard (D) Pre-formatting
436. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following fill
     effects can you use for the slide background
     (A) Gradient (B) Texture
     (C) Picture (D) All of the above
437. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following
     statements is not true
     (A) Holding down the Shift key while you
     draw an object creates perfect squares,
     circles and straight lines
     (B) The text in a text box can’t be formatted
     (C) The drawing toolbar contains tools for
     drawing shapes, lines, arrows, and
     more
     (D) Ctrl + S save the document
438. In Microsoft PowerPoint chart can be put as
     a part of the presentation using
     (A) Insert -> Chart
     (B) Insert -> Pictures -> Chart
     (C) Edit -> Chart
     (D) View -> Chart
439. The arrangement of elements such as Title
     and Subtitle text, pictures, tables etc. is called
     (A) Layout (B) Presentation
     (C) Design (D) Scheme
440. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following are
     types of sound files
     (A) LOG files (B) DAT files
     (C) WAV files (D) DRV files
     54 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
441. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following can you
     use to add times to the slides in a
     presentation
     (A) Microsoft graph (B) Microsoft Table
     (C) Microsoft Excel (D) Microsoft Word
442. In Microsoft PowerPoint view can be used
     to enter speaker comments
     (A) Normal (B) Slide show
     (C) Slide sorter (D) Notes page view
443. In Microsoft PowerPoint best way to insert a
     new slide in a presentation is to use the
     (A) Normal view
     (B) Special view
     (C) Slide show view
     (D) Slide sorter view
444. In Microsoft PowerPoint the best view for
     getting your thoughts for a presentation out
     on the computer
     (A) Outline view (B) Notes page view
     (C) Slide sorter view (D) Slide view
445. In Microsoft PowerPoint boxes that are
     displayed to indicate that the text, pictures or
     objects are placed in it is called
     (A) Placeholder (B) Auto text
     (C) Text box (D) Word art
446. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following is not
     a feature of PowerPoint
     (A) Printing transparencies
     (B) Printing the speaker’s notes along with
     slide images
     (C) Linking a slide transition with a laser
     pointer
     (D) Drawing with a pen
447. In Microsoft PowerPoint the option can be
     used to create a new slide show with the
     current slides but presented in a different
     order
     (A) Rehearsal
     (B) Custom slider show
     (C) Slide show setup
     (D) Slide show view
448. In Microsoft PowerPoint the following are
     actions you can assign to an action button
     or slide object
     (A) Run a macro (B) Play a sound
     (C) Hyper link (D) All of above
449. Which option in PowerPoint allows to carry
     slides from one computer to another?
     (A) Save As (B) Save and Go
     (C) Pack and Go (D) Web and Go
450. In Microsoft PowerPoint the handout master
     contains placeholders fro all of the following
     except
     (A) Slide number (B) Title
     (C) Footer (D) Header
     Answer Sheet
451. (C) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (B) 5. (C)
452. (A) 7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (C)
453. (C) 12. (A) 13. (D) 14. (C) 15. (D)
454. (A) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (A)
455. (B) 22. (B) 23. (D) 24. (D) 25. (D)
456. (B) 27. (C) 28. (B) 29. (C) 30. (B)
457. (B) 32. (D) 33. (B) 34. (B) 35. (C)
458. (A) 37. (B) 38. (D) 39. (B) 40. (D)
459. (D) 42. (A) 43. (D) 44. (D) 45. (D)
460. (B) 47. (D) 48. (C) 49. (D) 50. (B)
461. (C) 52. (C) 53. (A) 54. (D) 55. (A)
462. (C) 57. (B) 58. (D) 59. (A) 60. (A)
463. (C) 62. (D) 63. (C) 64. (C) 65. (A)
464. (B) 67. (C) 68. (C) 69. (A) 70. (C)
465. (C) 72. (D) 73. (B) 74. (B) 75. (C)
466. (C) 77. (A) 78. (C) 79. (A) 80. (B)
467. (B) 82. (A) 83. (D) 84. (A) 85. (C)
468. (A) 87. (B) 88. (A) 89. (B) 90. (C)
469. (D) 92. (D) 93. (C) 94. (B) 95. (B)
470. (B) 97. (A) 98. (C) 99. (B) 100. (C)
471. (C) 102. (A) 103. (A) 104. (D) 105. (C)
472. (B) 107. (B) 108. (B) 109. (A) 110. (A)
473. (D) 112. (B) 113. (B) 114. (C) 115. (A)
474. (D) 117. (D) 118. (D) 119. (D) 120. (B)
475. (D) 122. (D) 123. (D) 124. (B) 125. (D)
476. (B) 127. (D) 128. (C) 129. (C) 130. (A)
477. (D) 132. (C) 133. (B) 134. (D) 135. (C)
478. (B) 137. (D) 138. (A) 139. (A) 140. (A)
479. (C) 142. (C) 143. (C) 144. (B) 145. (A)
480. (C) 147. (A) 148. (C) 149. (B) 150. (C)
481. (D) 152. (C) 153. (C) 154. (A) 155. (B)
482. (C) 157. (B) 158. (B) 159. (C) 160. (C)
483. (B) 162. (D) 163. (C) 164. (D) 165. (B)
484. (D) 167. (B) 168. (B) 169. (A) 170. (C)
485. (A) 172. (D) 173. (D) 174. (A) 175. (A)
486. (C) 177. (B) 178. (D) 179. (B) 180. (B)
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 55
     MICROSOFT ACCESS
487. In Access to open new database press
     (A) CTRL+N (B) CTRL+O
     (C) ALT+F4 (D) None of these
488. In Access to open an existing database
     press
     (A) CTRL+N (B) CTRL+O
     (C) ALT+F4 (D) None of these
489. In Access, to Exit Office Access 2007Access
     (A) CTRL+N (B) CTRL+O
     (C) ALT+F4 (D) None of these
490. In Access press CTRL+N to
     (A) Open a new database
     (B) Open an existing database
     (C) Exit Office Access 2007Access
     (D) None of these
491. In Access press CTRL+O to
     (A) Open a new database
     (B) Open an existing database
     (C) Exit Office Access 2007Access
     (D) None of these
492. In Access press ALT+F4 to
     (A) Open a new database
     (B) Open an existing database
     (C) Exit Office Access 2007Access
     (D) None of these
493. Press the following keys in Access to Print
     the current or selected object
     (A) CTRL+P (B) P or CTRL+P
     (C) S (D) C or ESC
494. Press the following keys in Access to Open
     the Print dialog box from Print Preview
     (A) CTRL+P (B) P or CTRL+P
     (C) S (D) C or ESC
495. Press the following keys in Access to Open
     the Page Setup dialog box from Print Preview
     (A) CTRL+P (B) P or CTRL+P
     (C) S (D) C or ESC
496. Press the following keys in Access to Cancel
     Print Preview or Layout Preview
     (A) CTRL+P (B) P or CTRL+P
     (C) S (D) C or ESC
497. Press the following keys in Access to Save a
     database object
     (A) CTRL+P
     (B) P or CTRL+P
     (C) CTRL+S or SHIFT+F12
     (D) F12
498. Press the following keys in Access to Open
     the Save As dialog box
     (A) CTRL+P
     (B) P or CTRL+P
     (C) CTRL+S or SHIFT+F12
     (D) F12
499. In Access to Open a combo box
     (A) F4 or ALT+DOWN ARROW
     (B) DOWN ARROW
     (C) PAGE DOWN
     (D) F9
500. In Access to Refresh the contents of a
     Lookup field (Lookup field: A field, used on a
     form or report in an Access database, that
     either displays a list of values retrieved from
     a table or query, or stores a static set of
     values.) list box or combo box
     (A) F4 or ALT+DOWN ARROW
     (B) DOWN ARROW
     (C) PAGE DOWN
     (D) F9
501. In Access to Move down one page
     (A) F4 or ALT+DOWN ARROW
     (B) DOWN ARROW
     (C) PAGE DOWN
     (D) F9
502. When using Access Database, use this
     feature to have Access select only certain
     records in the database to prepare form
     letters.
     (A) Report (B) Table
     (C) Query (D) Tools
503. In Access to Move down one line
     (A) F4 or ALT+DOWN ARROW
     (B) DOWN ARROW
     (C) PAGE DOWN
     (D) F9
     56 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
504. In Access press…………………….to Move
     the selected control to the left (except
     controls that are part of a layout)
     (A) CTRL+C (B) CTRL+X
     (C) CTRL+V (D) None of these
505. In Access press …………………….to Move
     the selected control to the right (except
     controls that are part of a layout)
     (A) CTRL+C (B) CTRL+X
     (C) CTRL+V (D) None of these
506. In Access press …………………….to Paste
     the contents of the Clipboard in the upper￾left corner of the selected section
     (A) CTRL+C (B) CTRL+X
     (C) CTRL+V (D) None of these
507. In Access press …………………….to Cut the
     selected control and copy it to the Clipboard
     (A) CTRL+C (B) CTRL+X
     (C) CTRL+V (D) None of these
508. In Access press …………………….to Copy
     the selected control to the Clipboard
     (A) CTRL+C (B) CTRL+X
     (C) CTRL+V (D) None of these
509. In Access press RIGHT ARROW or
     CTRL+RIGHT ARROW
     (A) Move the selected control to the right
     (except controls that are part of a layout)
     (B) Move the selected control to the left
     (except controls that are part of a layout)
     (C) Move the selected control up
     (D) None of these
510. In Access press LEFT ARROW or
     CTRL+LEFT ARROW
     (A) Move the selected control to the right
     (except controls that are part of a layout)
     (B) Move the selected control to the left
     (except controls that are part of a layout)
     (C) Move the selected control up
     (D) None of these
511. In Access press ALT+F11 to
     (A) Display the Control menu
     (B) Display the shortcut menu
     (C) Close the active window
     (D) None of these
512. In Access press ALT+F11 to
     (A) Display the Control menu
     (B) Display the shortcut menu
     (C) Close the active window
     (D) Switch between the Visual Basic Editor
     and the previous active window
513. In Access press to Toggle the focus forward
     between controls in the wizard
     (A) TAB (B) ALT+N
     (C) ALT+B (D) ALT+F
514. In access press to Move to the next page of
     the wizard
     (A) TAB (B) ALT+N
     (C) ALT+B (D) ALT+F
515. In Access press UP ARROW to
     (A) Move up one line
     (B) Move up one page
     (C) Exit the combo box or list box
     (D) None of these
516. In Access press PAGE UP
     (A) Move up one line
     (B) Move up one page
     (C) Exit the combo box or list box
     (D) None of these
517. In Access press TAB
     (A) Move up one line
     (B) Move up one page
     (C) Exit the combo box or list box
     (D) None of these
518. In Access to find the next occurrence of the
     text specified in the Find and Replace dialog
     box when the dialog box is closed
     (Datasheet view and Form view only)
     (A) CTRL+F (B) CTRL+H
     (C) SHIFT+F4 (D) None of these
519. In Access to open the Find tab in the Find
     and Replace dialog box (Datasheet view and
     Form view only)
     (A) CTRL+F (B) CTRL+H
     (C) SHIFT+F4 (D) None of these
520. In Access to open the Replace tab in the Find
     and Replace dialog box (Datasheet view and
     Form view only)
     (A) CTRL+F (B) CTRL+H
     (C) SHIFT+F4 (D) None of these
521. In Access to switch between Edit mode (with
     insertion point displaye(D)
     (A) F2 (B) F4
     (C) F5 (D) F6
522. In Access to switch to the property sheet
     (Design view in forms and reports in both
     Access databases and Access projects)
     (A) F2 (B) F4
     (C) F5 (D) F6
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 57
523. In Access to switch between the upper and
     lower portions of a window (Design view of
     queries, and the Advanced Filter/Sort
     window)
     (A) F2 (B) F4
     (C) F5 (D) F6
524. In Access to switch to Form view from form
     Design view
     (A) F2 (B) F4
     (C) F5 (D) F6
525. In Access press to Cycle through the field
     grid, field properties, Navigation Pane,
     access keys in the Keyboard Access System,
     Zoom controls, and the security bar (Design
     view of tables)
     (A) F6 (B) F7
     (C) F8 (D) None of these
526. In Access press to Open the Choose Builder
     dialog box (Design view window of forms
     and reports)
     (A) F6 (B) F7
     (C) F8 (D) None of these
527. In Access press to Open the Visual Basic
     Editor from a selected property in the property
     sheet for a form or report
     (A) F6 (B) F7
     (C) F8 (D) None of these
528. In Access press to Switch from the Visual
     Basic Editor back to form or report Design
     view
     (A) F6 (B) F7
     (C) F8 (D) None of these
529. Switch from the Visual Basic Editor back to
     form or report Design view in Access press
     (A) ALT+F11
     (B) SHIFT+F7
     (C) A and B both are true
     (D) None is true
530. In Access press to Move to the previous page
     of the wizard
     (A) TAB (B) ALT+N
     (C) ALT+B (D) ALT+F
531. In Access press to Complete the wizard
     (A) TAB (B) ALT+N
     (C) ALT+B (D) ALT+F
532. In Access press UP ARROW or CTRL+UP
     ARROW
     (A) Move the selected control to the right
     (except controls that are part of a layout)
     (B) Move the selected control to the left
     (except controls that are part of a layout)
     (C) Move the selected control up
     (D) None of these
533. In Access press DOWN ARROW or CTRL+
     DOWN ARROW
     (A) Move the selected control to the right
     (except controls that are part of a layout)
     (B) Move the selected control to the left
     (except controls that are part of a layout)
     (C) Move the selected control up
     (D) None of these
534. In Access to Increase the height of the
     selected control
     (A) SHIFT+RIGHT ARROW
     (B) SHIFT+DOWN ARROW
     (C) DOWN ARROW or CTRL+DOWN
     ARROW
     (D) None of these
535. In Access press F11 to
     (A) Toggle the Navigation Pane
     (B) Cycle between open windows
     (C) Restore the selected minimized window
     when all windows are minimized
     (D) Turn on Resize mode for the active
     window when it is not maximized; press
     the arrow keys to resize the window
536. In Access press CTRL+F6 to
     (A) Toggle the Navigation Pane
     (B) Cycle between open windows
     (C) Restore the selected minimized window
     when all windows are minimized
     (D) Turn on Resize mode for the active
     window when it is not maximized; press
     the arrow keys to resize the window
537. In Access press ENTER to
     (A) Toggle the Navigation Pane
     (B) Cycle between open windows
     (C) Restore the selected minimized window
     when all windows are minimized
     (D) Turn on Resize mode for the active
     window when it is not maximized; press
     the arrow keys to resize the window
538. In Access press CTRL+F8 to
     (A) Toggle the Navigation Pane
     (B) Cycle between open windows
     (C) Restore the selected minimized window
     when all windows are minimized
     (D) Turn on Resize mode for the active
     window when it is not maximized; press
     the arrow keys to resize the window
539. In Access press ALT+SPACEBAR to
     (A) Display the Control menu
     (B) Display the shortcut menu
     (C) Close the active window
     (D) None of these
     58 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
540. In Access press SHIFT+F10 to
     (A) Display the Control menu
     (B) Display the shortcut menu
     (C) Close the active window
     (D) None of these
541. In Access press CTRL+W or CTRL+F4 to
     (A) Display the Control menu
     (B) Display the shortcut menu
     (C) Close the active window
     (D) None of these
542. In Access to reduce the height of the selected
     control
     (A) SHIFT+RIGHT ARROW
     (B) SHIFT+DOWN ARROW
     (C) DOWN ARROW or CTRL+DOWN
     ARROW
     (D) None of these
543. In Access to increase the width of the
     selected control
     (A) SHIFT+RIGHT ARROW
     (B) SHIFT+DOWN ARROW
     (C) DOWN ARROW or CTRL+DOWN
     ARROW
     (D) None of these
544. In Access to move the selected control down
     (A) SHIFT+RIGHT ARROW
     (B) SHIFT+DOWN ARROW
     (C) DOWN ARROW or CTRL+DOWN
     ARROW
     (D) None of these
545. A- Press DOWN ARROW or CTRL+DOWN
     ARROW , B- Press SHIFT+LEFT ARROW: 1-
     Move the selected control down, 2- Reduce
     the width of the selected control.
     (A) A-1, B-2 (B) A-2, B-2
     (C) A-1, B-1 (D) A-2, B-1
546. According to Access Help, what’s a good way
     to design a database?
     (A) Start from data access pages and work
     backward
     (B) Sketch the design of your database
     using a pencil and paper
     (C) Use the Table Analyzer to reverse￾engineer your flat source data.
     (D) None of above
547. Which editor was provided for use with
     Access Basic?
     (A) The Visual Basic 1.0 editor
     (B) Notepad
     (C) The QuickBasic editor
     (D) All of above
548. You add a table to the query design window
     (A) Select Edit>Add Table from the menu
     (B) Select Tools>Add table from the menu
     (C) Click the Show Table button on the
     toolbar
     (D) Select the table from the Table list on
     the toolbar
549. Which of the following type s of queries are
     action queries?
     (A) Update queries.
     (B) Crosstab Queries
     (C) Parameter queries
     (D) Append Queries
550. A query prompts a user for a data and then
     displays only records that contain the
     specified date. The type of of query is this
     (A) A parameter query
     (B) A crosstab query
     (C) An update query
     (D) An action query
551. Which of the following is NOT a report
     section?
     (A) Report Header section
     (B) Summary section
     (C) Page header section
     (D) Details section
552. You can display a database object in design
     view by
     (A) Opening the database object and
     clicking the view button on the toolbar
     (B) Selecting the database object and
     clicking the design button on the
     database window
     (C) Selecting the database object and
     press Ctrl + V
     (D) Opening the database object and
     selecting Tools>Design view
553. How can you display the relationship in a
     database?
     (A) Select View > Relationship form the
     menu
     (B) Click the Relationship button on the
     toolbar
     (C) Select Edit >Relationship from the menu
     (D) All the above are true
554. If you are creating a cross tab query, what
     must table you are querying contain?
     (A) Lots of confusing information
     (B) More than 100 records
     (C) At least one field
     (D) None of the above
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 59
555. A query summarizes information in a grid,
     organized by regions and months. Which
     type of query is this?
     (A) A cross tab query
     (B) An update query
     (C) A parameter query
     (D) An action query
556. What type of text box does the toolbox and to
     a form?
     (A) Unbound (B) Bound
     (C) Rebound (D) Calculated
557. The filter by selection feature allows you to
     filter
     (A) Those records that match an entity in a
     field
     (B) Records based on a criterion you
     specify
     (C) Records that meet any of several criteria
     you specify
     (D) All of above
558. What is the memo data type field used for?
     (A) To add table
     (B) To store objects created in other
     programs
     (C) For long text entries
     (D) For shout text entries of no more than
     255 characters
559. What is the purpose of the description
     column in Table Design View?
     (A) To define the data type applied to each
     field within the table
     (B) To describe the data that should be
     entered in each field
     (C) To enter lookup data that the field should
     refer to.
     (D) None of the above
560. What is the propose to a sub datasheet?
     (A) To provide a hierarchial view of related
     tables or queries in a single window
     (B) To display grouped data in a report
     (C) To display summarized data.
     (D) All of the above
561. Which of the following is not a selection
     technique ?
     (A) To select a word, double click the word
     (B) To select an entire table click the empty
     bosx to the left of the field names
     (C) To select a row, click the record selector
     box to the left of the row
     (D) To select a column, double click
     anywhere in the column
562. How can you display Pivot Table report
     summary data in a currency format?
     (A) Use custom calculation
     (B) Type in the currency symbol
     (C) Modify the field settings
     (D) None of the above
563. What method can you use to add a new table
     to your database?
     (A) Use Design View to create a table
     (B) Enter data directly by using a datasheet
     (C) Both of above
     (D) All of the above
564. Which action do you use in a a macro to
     automatically send a report snapshot in an
     email message?
     (A) Use mail (B) Send object
     (C) Run macro (D) All of the above
565. How can you display sales grouped by
     country, region, and salesperson, all at the
     same time?
     (A) Use the Sort Descending command.
     (B) Use the Pivot table view command
     (C) Use the find command on specified
     groups
     (D) All of above
566. The checking operation performed on
     input data is called the
     (A) Validation of data
     (B) Verification of data
     (C) Cross check
     (D) Control of data
567. A form defines
     (A) Where data is placed on the screen
     (B) The width of each field
     (C) Both (A) and (B)
     (D) All of the above
568. The following method you can use to add a
     new table to your database
     (A) Use Design View to create a table
     (B) Enter data directly by using a datasheet
     (C) Both of above
     (D) All of the above
569. The following you can use in a macro to
     automatically send a report snapshot in an
     email message
     (A) Use mail (B) Send object
     (C) Run macro (D) All of the above
570. To display sales grouped by country, region,
     and salesperson, all at the same time
     (A) Use the Sort Descending command.
     (B) Use the Pivot table view command
     (C) Use the find command on specified
     groups
     (D) All of above
     60 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
571. The checking operation performed on
     input data is called the
     (A) Validation of data (B) Verification of data
     (C) Cross check (D) Control of data
572. A form defines
     (A) Where data is placed on the screen
     (B) The width of each field
     (C) Both (A) and (B)
     (D) All of the above
573. To insert a graphic of your company’s logo
     on a report
     (A) Click the image button on the toolbox
     and drag on the report to draw a place
     holder for the graphics
     (B) You can’t. Microsoft Access won’t let you
     insert graphics files.
     (C) Select Insert > Picture from the menu
     (D) Select Tools > Insert Picture from the
     menu
574. The Fill/Back Color button on the formatting
     toolbar applies color to:
     (A) The border fo the selected control
     (B) The text in the selected control
     (C) All aspects of the control
     (D) The background of the selected control
575. The type of query extract the data and put
     them into separate table
     (A) A parameter query
     (B) A make-table query
     (C) An update query
     (D) A crosstab query
576. The following criterion is NOT written using
     the proper syntax?
     (A) “Haris” (B) <500
     (C) NO VALUE
     (D) Between #1/1/2000# and #12/31/2000#
577. (IF [Age]>65, “Senior”,”Adult”) This
     expression is an example of:
     (A) A conditional expression
     (B) Algebraic expression
     (C) Something that belongs in a Microsoft
     Excel book
     (D) A financial expression
578. The following property determines what is
     displayed in a control.
     (A) The control source property
     (B) The display property
     (C) The comes from property
     (D) The data property
579. You view the properties of a form
     (A) Select View>Form properties form the
     menu
     (B) Right click anywhere on the form and
     select properties from the shortcut menu
     (C) Double click the form selector box in the
     upper left corner of the form
     (D) All of the above
580. You can keep the sum([Sales]) to calculate
     the totals for each month in
     (A) the report footer section
     (B) the page footer section
     (C) the month group footer section
     (D) the summary section
581. The procedure for selecting multiple controls
     on a report?
     (A) Hold down the Shift key as you click each
     object that you want to select
     (B) If the controls are aligned along a
     horizontal or vertical line, click the
     horizontal or vertical ruler above or to
     the left of the controls
     (C) Hold down the Ctrl key as you click each
     object that you want to select
     (D) All of these above are true
582. The following database object can you
     import from one Microsoft Access database
     to another?
     (A) Queries (B) Tables
     (C) Forms (D) All of the above
583. What field type is used to store picture in a
     table?
     (A) Memo (B) OLE
     (C) Hyperlink (D) None
     Answer Sheet
584. (A) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (B)
585. (C) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (D)
586. (C) 12. (D) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (C)
587. (C) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (D) 20. ()
588. (B) 22. (A) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (D)
589. (D) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (A) 30. (B)
590. (C) 32. (C) 33. (A) 34. (A) 35. (A)
591. (B) 37. (D) 38. (C) 39. (A) 40. (B)
592. (B) 42. (D) 43. (C) 44. (C) 45. (D)
593. (C) 47. (D) 48. (B) 49. (A) 50. (B)
594. (C) 52. (A) 53. (A) 54. (B) 55. (C)
595. (D) 57. (A) 58. (C) 59. (A) 60. (B)
596. (B) 62. (C) 63. (D) 64. (A) 65. (B)
597. (B) 67. (B) 68. (C) 69. (A) 70. (A)
598. (A) 72. (C) 73. (B) 74. (A) 75. (D)
599. (C) 77. (C) 78. (B) 79. (B) 80. (A)
600. (C) 82. (C) 83. (B) 84. (B) 85. (A)
601. (C) 87. (A) 88. (B) 89. (B) 90. (C)
602. (A) 92. (A) 93. (B) 94. (C) 95. (A)
603. (D) 97. (B)
     COMPUTER : AD COMPUTER : ADCOMPUTER : ADVANCE
     ( Operating Sy ting Sy stem
     ( Software Engineering e Engineeringe Engineering
     ( Data Str uctures &
     Algorithms orithms
     ( Data Mining and Da ta Mining and Data Mining and Data
     Ware House e House
     ( Electronics Da onics Daonics Data
     Processing ocessingocessing
     ( Parallel Computing allel Computingallel Computing
     ( Window Pr Window PrWindow Programming
     ( Data Base Mana ta Base Manata Base Management
     System (DBMS) System (DBMS)System (DBMS)

OPERATING SYSTEM

1. The main memory of the computer
   (A) Controls the operations of computer.
   (B) Performs data processing functions.
   (C) Stores data and programs.
   (D) None of these.
2. Program counter (P(C) contains
   (A) Address of an instruction to be fetched
   (B) Instructions most recently fetched
   (C) Data to be written into memory
   (D) Data to be read from memory
3. MAR (memory address register)
   (A) Contains data to be written into memory.
   (D) Contains data to be read from memory.
   (C) Specifies location in memory for next
   read/or writer.
   (D) Contains address of next instruction to
   be fetched.
4. IR (Instruction register)
   (A) Contains the address of an instruction
   to be fetched.
   (B) Contains the instruction most recently
   fetched
   (C) Specifies memory addresses.
   (D) None of these.
5. Which of the following is not an address
   register?
   (A) Index register (B) Segment pointer
   (C) Stack pointer (D) Data register.
6. Following is not the state of Five-State
   process model
   (A) Ready (B) Running
   (C) Not Running (D) New.
7. Memory table is used
   (A) To allocate main memory to processes
   (B) To allocate secondary memory to
   processes
   (C) To manage virtual memory
   (D) A, B and C are true.
8. I/O tables are used
   (A) To assign I/O devices of computer
   (B) To manage I/O devices of computer
   system
   (C) A and B both true
   (D) A and B both false.
9. The operating system control tables
   maintains file table, because
   (A) These tables manage I/O devices and
   channels of the computer system.
   (B) These tables provide information about
   the existence of files, their location on
   secondary memory and their current
   status.
   (C) These tables provide information to
   manage process.
   (D) None of these.
10. Processor in computer
    (A) Controls the operations of the computer/
    processes data functions.
    (B) Stores data and program.
    (C) Moves data between computer and its
    external environment.
    (D) None of these.
11. Memory buffer register (MBR) contains
    (A) Data that is to be written into memory
    (B) A particular I/O device.
    (C) Exchange data between I/O module and
    the processor.
    (D) The instruction most recently fetched.
12. I/O modules move data
    (A) Between external environment and
    computer.
    (B) In the computer main memory.
    (C) In Processors
    (D) None of these.
13. I/O OBR (I/O Buffer register) is
    (A) Used for the exchange of data between
    an I/O module and the processor.
    (B) Specifies particular I/O device.
    64 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
    (C) (A) and (B) both true.
    (D) (A) and (B) both false.
14. User-visible register
    (A) Enables machine language
    programmer to minimize main memory
    reference by optimizing register use.
    (B) Enables assembly language
    programmer to minimize main memory
    reference by optimizing register use.
    (C) A and B both true.
    (D) A and B both false.
15. The operations of the processor are
    supervised by
    (A) Control and Status register
    (B) Data register.
    (C) Address register.
16. User-Visible register Which of the following
    do not support GUI (Graphical User
    Interface)
    (A) DOS (B) WINDOWS
    (C) Linux (D) None of these.
17. In the given operating system match the
    correct
    (i) Thread (ii) Process
    (A) The unit of resource ownership.
    (B) The unit of dispatching.
    (A) (i) A and (ii) B (C) (i) B and (ii) A
    (D) (i) A, B (E) (ii) A, B.
18. The MS-DOS an operating system supports
    (A) Single user process and multiple
    threads
    (B) Multiple user process and single thread
    (C) Single user process and single thread
    (D) Multiple user processes and multiple
    threads.
19. The UNIX, an operating system supports
    (A) Multiple user processes and single
    thread per process.
    (B) Multiple user processes and multiple
    threads per process.
    (C) Single user process and single thread
    per process.
    (D) Single user process and multiple
    threads per process.
20. The Java run time environment is an
    example of
    (A) Single user process with multiple
    threads
    (B) Multiple user processes with single
    thread per process.
    (C) Multiple user processes with multiple
    threads per process.
    (D) None of these.
21. The Windows 2000, operating system
    supports
    (A) Multiple user processes with single
    thread per process.
    (B) Multiple processes with multiple thread
    per process.
    (C) Single process with single thread.
    (D) Single process with multiple threads.
22. In the pure User Level Threads (ULT)
    (i) Thread management is done by
    application,
    (ii) Thread management is done by kernel,
    (iii) Kernel is not aware of the existence of
    thread,
    (iv) Application program interface (API) to
    the kernel thread facility.
    (A) i, iii are true
    (B) i, ii and iii are true
    (C) All are false
    (D) None of these are true
23. The Window 2000 (W2K) and Linux are the
    example of
    (A) User Level Thread (ULT)
    (B) Kernel Level Thread (KLT)
    (C) A and B both
    (D) None of these.
24. The following is not an advantage of User
    Level Threads (ULT).
    (A) Thread switching does not requires
    kernel mode privileges because all of
    the thread management are within the
    user address space of a single process.
    (B) Here scheduling can be application
    specific.
    (C) ULT can be run an any operating system.
    (D) When ULT executes a system call, not
    only that thread blocked, but all of the
    threads within the process are blocked.
25. The Linux operating system supports
    (A) Single thread per process and single
    process.
    (B) Multiple thread per process and single
    process.
    (C) Single thread per process and multiple
    processes.
    (D) Multiple thread per process and multiple
    processes.
    M.C.Qs. on Computer | 65
26. The Vector and array processors fall into
    (A) Single Instruction Single Data (SIS(D)
    stream
    (B) Single Instruction Multiple Data (SIM(D)
    stream.
    (C) Multiple Instruction Single Data (MIS(D)
    stream.
    (D) Multiple Instruction Multiple Data
    (MIM(D) system.
27. In cluster
    (A) Computers communicate with each
    other’s via fixed paths or via some
    network facilities
    (B) Computer communicates with each
    other’s via a shared memory.
    (C) Both (A) and (B)
    (D) None of these.
28. The cluster is a case of
    (A) Distributed memory
    (B) Shared memory
    (C) Master/slave architecture
    (D) Symmetric multi processor.
29. The master/slave architecture is an example
    of
    (A) Distributed memory processing
    (B) Shared memory processing
    (C) Symmetric multi processing
    (D) None of these.
30. I/O modules in computer
    (A) Controls the operation of the computer.
    (B) Stores data and program.
    (C) Move data between the computer and
    external environment.
    (D) Provides communication among
    processors and main memory.
31. Instruction register contains
    (A) The address of an instruction to be
    fetched.
    (B) The instructions most recently fetched.
    (C) The data to be written into memory.
    (D) The data to be read from memory.
32. The following
    (A) Start? Fetch next instruction?
    Execute Instruction ? Halt, represents
    (B) Instruction cycle with interrupt
    (C) Instruction cycle without interrupt
    (D) Instruction cycle with two interrupts
    (E) None of these.
33. Instruction processing consists of
    (A) Fetch cycle only
    (B) Execution cycle only
    (C) Fetch and Execution cycle both
    (D) None of these.
34. Operating System is
    (A) Software
    (B) Hardware
    (C) Software and Hardware both
    (D) None of these.
35. The concept used to support multi
    programming environment on a computer
    is
    (A) Virtual memory
    (B) Hierarchy of physical memory
    (C) Display of multiple windows
    (D) None the above.
36. Which combination of the following features
    will suffice to characterize an OS as a multi
    programmed OS ?
    (i) More than one program may be loaded
    into main memory at the same time for
    execution.
    (ii) If a program waits for certain events such
    as I/O, another program is immediately
    scheduled for execution.
    (iii) If the execution of a program terminates,
    another program is immediately
    scheduled for execution.
    (A) (i) only (B) (ii) and (iii)
    (C) (i) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii) and (iii).
37. Turnaround time is defined as
    (A) Delay between job submission and job
    completion
    (B) A waiting time
    (C) Both (A) and (B) above
    (D) None of these
38. The only state transition initiated by the user
    process itself in an operating system is
    (A) Block (B) Timer run out
    (C) Dispatch (D) Wake up
39. Window 98 is a
    (A) Single user system
    (B) Multi user system
    (C) Single tasking system
    (D) None of these.
40. OS/390 is a
    (A) Single user system
    (B) Multi user system
    (C) Single tasking system
    (D) None of these.
41. Thread is
    (A) Dispatch able unit of work
    (B) Can be interrupted
    (C) A and B both true
    (D) A and B both false.
    66 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
42. Multithreading allows
    (A) To run threads concurrently
    (B) To run threads independently
    (C) A is true, B is false
    (D) A and B both true.
43. For multithreading
    (A) Tasks to be performed can be
    independent
    (B) Task to be performed is essentially
    serialized.
    (C) Tasks cannot be divided into number of
    threads.
    (D) None is true.
44. The principal function of a process is
    (A) To execute machine instructions
    residing in main memory.
    (B) To execute assembly instructions
    residing outside main memory.
    (C) A and B both true.
    (D) A and B both false.
45. The trace of the process is
    (A) A set of instructions that execute process
    (B) A listing of sequence of instructions that
    execute process
    (C) A track of network
    (D) None of these.
46. The two state process models have the
    following states
    (A) Running and Not Running
    (B) Running and Ready
    (C) Ready and Blocked
    (D) New and Ready.
47. The process control blocks are referred for
    (A) Process control
    (B) I/O devices
    (C) Memory allocation
    (D) None of these.
48. Given three switch processes, when they
    occur match them
    (1) Clock Interrupt A- The processor
    encounters a virtual
    memory address
    reference for a word
    that is not in the main
    memory.
    (2) I/O Interrupt B- The operating
    system determines
    whether the currently
    running process has
    been executed for the
    maximum allowable
    time slice.
    (3) Memory fault C- The operating
    system determines
    the I/O action that
    occurs.
    (A) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C (B) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A
    (C) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C (D) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A.
49. With trap in process control
    (A) Operating system determines the error
    or exception condition that is fatal.
    (B) Operating system interrupted for
    maximum allowable time.
    (C) Are tables that manage information
    process
    (D) None of these.
50. Process control block is also referred as
    (A) Fast control block
    (B) Process descriptor
    (C) Task descriptor
    (D) A, B, C are all true.
51. The operating system control tables
    maintain process tables, because
    (A) These tables manages I/O devices
    (B) These tables manages files
    (C) These tables manages memory
    (D) None of these.
52. Windows XP is
    (A) Uni-programming processes
    (B) Multi programming processes
    (C) Hardware
    (D) None of these.
53. The OS/2 is the operating system that
    support
    (A) Single thread per process
    (B) Multiple thread per process
    (C) Single process
    (D) None of these.
54. In shared memory multi processor
    (A) Computer communicate to each other
    by fixed paths
    (B) Computer communicates to each other
    via a shared memory.
    (C) Each processing element is a self
    contained computer.
    (D) None of these.
55. The following is not true for master/slave
    architecture
    (A) A failure of master brings down the
    whole system
    (B) Operating system kernel runs on
    master processor only.
    M.C.Qs. on Computer | 67
    (C) Operating system kernel can run on any
    processor either master or slave.
    (D) All scheduling and process manage￾ment is done on master processor.
56. In monolithic operating system
    (A) Virtually any procedure can call any
    other procedure.
    (B) Virtually specific procedure can call any
    other procedure.
    (C) Virtually specific procedure can call
    specific procedure.
    (D) None of these.
57. In Layered operating system following
    statement is false
    (A) Most or all the layers execute in kernel
    mode.
    (B) Interaction only takes place between
    adjacent layers.
    (C) Functions are organized hierarchically.
    (D) None of these.
58. When operating system always run on a
    particular processor and that particular
    processor do all scheduling and process
    management then this is an example of
    (A) Master/slave architecture
    (B) Symmetric multiprocessor
    (C) Cluster
    (D) None of these.
59. In micro kernel architecture following is false.
    (A) Intersection takes place only between
    adjacent layers.
    (B) Intersection takes place via micro kernel.
    (C) It supports portability.
    (D) It supports object-oriented operating
    system.
60. In the following processes: a = a + 1; b = 2 ×
    b; b = b + 1; a = 2 × a;the output is.
    (A) a > b (B) a < b
    (C) a = b (D) None of these.
61. A Semaphore is initialized to
    (A) Negative integer value
    (B) Positive integer value
    (C) Non-negative integer value
    (D) Non-positive integer value.
62. The wait operation
    (A) Decrements the semaphore value
    (B) Increments the semaphore value
    (C) Fixes the semaphore value
    (D) None of these.
63. In semaphore, the process executing the wait
    is blocked if
    (A) The semaphore value becomes
    negative
    (B) The semaphore value become positive
    (C) The semaphore value becomes non￾positive
    (D) The semaphore value becomes non￾negative.
64. In semaphore when the order of processes
    that are waiting to be removed from the queue
    is first in first out (FIFO) then it is called
    (A) Weak semaphore
    (B) Strong semaphore
    (C) Binary semaphore
    (D) None of these.
65. In semaphore the process blocked by wait
    operation is unblocked if
    (A) Semaphore value becomes non￾negative
    (B) Semaphore value becomes non￾positive
    (C) Semaphore value is negative
    (D) Semaphore value is positive.
66. The compaction is the technique in memory
    management that is used to over come
    (A) Internal fragmentation
    (B) External fragmentation
    (C) Both (A) and (B)
    (D) None of these.
67. Physical address (absolute address) in
    memory partitioning is
    (A) Actual location in main memory
    (B) A reference to memory location
    independent of current assignment
    (C) A logical address
    (D) None of these.
68. The frame
    (A) Can hold exactly one page of data
    (B) Can hold more than one page of data
    (C) Can hole two page of data
    (D) None of these.
69. The page table that is maintained by
    operating system
    (A) Shows frame location for each page of
    the process
    (B) Shows actual address in main memory
    (C) Referrer memory location to memory
    (D) None of these.
70. Match the following pairs
    A. Logical address
    (1) An actual location in main memory
    B. Relative address
    (2) An address is expressed as a location
    relative to some known point.
    C. Physical address
    (3) A memory location independent of the
    current assignment of data to memory
    68 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
    (A) A – 3, B – 2, C–1
    (B) A – 2, B – 1, C – 3
    (C) A – 3, B – 1, C – 2
    (D) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3
71. The resident set of process is
    (A) A process that are actually in main
    memory at anytime.
    (B) A process that are actually in virtual
    memory at any time.
    (C) A process that are actually in disk.
    (D) None of these.
72. Physical address in memory management
    is
    (A) Actual location in main memory
    (B) Memory location independent of current
    assignment of data to memory.
    (C) Memory location dependent to some
    known point.
    (D) None of these.
73. Relative address in memory management
    is
    (A) Independent of some known point
    (B) Dependent to some known point
    (C) Actual location in the main memory
    (D) None of these.
74. A Absolute loading B Re-locatable loading
    C Dynamic Run-Time loading; 1. For loader,
    load module, either is an absolute main
    memory address or specific address
    reference. 2. For loader, load modules have
    no absolute address. 3. For loader, load
    modules have all memory reference in
    relative form.
    (A) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3
    (B) A – 2, B – 3 , C – 1
    (C) A – 1, B – 3, C – 2
    (D) A – 3, B – 2, C – 1
75. For Load-time dynamic linking
    (A) Load module (application module) to be
    loaded is read into memory.
    (B) Some of the linking is postponed until
    execution time.
    (C) External references to target modules
    remain in the loaded program.
    (D) None of these.
76. In thread scheduling, load sharing is referred
    to
    (A) Simultaneous scheduling of threads
    that make up a single process.
    (B) Implicit scheduling defined by the
    assignment of threads to processors.
    (C) A global queue of ready thread is
    maintained and each processor, when
    idle, selects a thread from queue.
    (D) None of these.
77. The real time task
    (A) The tasks that reacts to events that take
    place in out side world.
    (B) The tasks that do not reacts to the
    outside world events.
    (C) The tasks are independent of the time
    when it occurs.
    (D) None of these.
78. Hard real-time tasks are
    (A) A real time task that do not require dead
    line constraints.
    (B) A real time task that requires dead line
    constraints.
    (C) A task independent to time when it
    occurs.
    (D) None of these.
79. The deterministic operating system
    (A) Where operations are performed with
    in pre-determined time interval.
    (B) Where operations can be performed
    with out pre-determined time interval.
    (C) The operating time can not be
    determined.
    (D) None of these.
80. In Responsive real time operating system
    (A) The interruption is acknowledge and
    operating system response to interrupt.
    (B) Once the operation starts no interrupt is
    acknowledge.
    (C) The operation completes in fixed inter
    of time.
    (D) None of these.
81. In multi processor scheduling; A: Gang
    scheduling, B: Dynamic scheduling, C:
    Dedicated processor management.; 1- The
    number of threads in a process can be
    altered during the course of execution. 2-
    This provides implicit scheduling defined by
    the assignment of threads to processors, 3-
    It is applied to the simultaneous scheduling
    of threads that make up a single process.
    (A) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3
    (B) A – 2, B – 1, C – 3
    (C) A – 1, B – 3, C – 2
    (D) A – 3, B – 1, C – 1
    M.C.Qs. on Computer | 69
82. In real time computing
    (A) The result of computation does not
    depend on the time at which computa￾tion is done.
    (B) The result of computation also depends
    on the time at which computation is
    done.
    (C) The results are independent of the time
    considered.
    (D) None of these.
83. In soft real time tasks
    (A) The dead line is always mandatory.
    (B) The dead line is desirable but not
    mandatory.
    (C) The results are independent of the time,
    when it took place.
    (D) None of these.
84. In real time scheduling: A: Static table driven
    approach, B: Static priority driven preemptive
    approach, C: Dynamic planning based
    approach; 1- A static analysis of feasible
    scheduler of dispatching is done and
    implemented. 2- A static analysis of feasible
    schedules of dispatching is done and
    assigns priorities to tasks. 3- Feasibility is
    determined at run time.
    (A) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3
    (B) A – 2, B – 3, C – 1
    (C) A – 3, B – 1, C – 2
    (D) None of these.
85. Match the following I/O devices : A- Keyboard,
    1- Human readable, B- Disk and tape drives,
    2- Communication, C- Modems, 3-Machine
    readable
    (A) A – 1, B – 3, C – 2
    (B) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3
    (C) A – 3, B – 2, C – 1
    (D) A – 2, B – 1, C – 3
86. Arrange the following I/O device in increasing
    data rate Hard disk, Floppy disk, Key board
    (A) Key board, Floppy disk, Hard disk
    (B) Floppy disk, Key board, Hard disk
    (C) Key board, Hard disk, Floppy disk
    (D) Hard disk, Floppy disk, Key board.
87. In I/O management when buffering is
    allowed then : Statement A: Input transfer is
    performed before request is made.
    Statement B: Output transfer is performed
    after request is made. Statement A and B are
    both true
    (A) Statement A and B are both false
    (B) Statement A is true but Statement B is
    false
    (C) Statement B is true but statement A is
    false.
    (D)
88. Resident set of process is
    (A) Portion of a process that is actually in
    main memory at any time.
    (B) Portion of a process that is actually in
    virtually memory at any time.
    (C) A and b both true.
    (D) None of these.
89. Main memory is referred as
    (A) Virtual memory (B) Real memory
    (C) A and B both (D) None of these.
90. Memory that is located on the disk either
    Hard or floppy is referred as
    (A) Virtual memory
    (B) Real memory
    (C) Main memory
    (D) None of these.
91. The principle of locality states
    (A) The program and data references within
    a process tend to cluster.
    (B) The program and data references within
    a process do not tend to cluster.
    (C) A process actually referred in virtual
    memory.
    (D) None of these.
92. In memory management : A- Fetch Policy B￾Cleaning Policy C- Placement Policy: 1- It
    determines when a modified page should
    be written out to secondary memory. 2- It
    determines when a page should be bought
    into main memory. 3- It determines where in
    real memory a process piece is to be reside.
    (A) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3
    (B) A – 2, B – 1, C – 3
    (C) A – 2, B – 1, C – 3
    (D) A – 3, B – 1, C – 2
93. In memory management when demand
    cleaning policy is applied
    (A) A modified page is written before their
    page frames are needed to so that
    pages can be written out in batches.
    (B) A page is written out to secondary
    memory only when it has been selected
    for replacement.
    (C) A and B both true.
    (D) None of these.
94. In two level scheme for page table, if one
    assume byte-level addressing and 4-kbyte
    (212 pages) then the 4-Gbyte (232) virtual
    address space is composed of
    (A) 210 pages (B) 220 pages
    (C) 230 pages (D) 240 pages
    70 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
95. When pre cleaning policy is applied in
    memory management
    (A) A page is written out to secondary
    memory only when it has been selected
    for replacement.
    (B) Modified pages are written before their
    page frames are needed so that can be
    written out in batches.
    (C) A and B both true.
    (D) None of these.
96. In virtual memory management, when local
    control policy is applied
    (A) It determines the number of processes
    that are to be resident in main memory.
    (B) It determines the number of processes
    that are to be resident in virtual memory.
    (C) It determines when a modified page
    should be written out to secondary
    memory.
    (D) None of these.
97. In two level scheme if each page is mapped
    by 4-byte (22
    ) page table entry then to create
    a page table composed of 220 page table
    entry one requires
    (A) 222 bytes (B) 212 bytes
    (C) 216 bytes (D) None of these.
98. In defining page table structure in virtual
    memory, A page number portion of a virtual
    address is mapped into a hash table using
    simple hash function, where hash table
    contains a pointer to the inverted page table,
    which contains page table entries, this
    approach is referred as
    (A) One page table per process structure.
    (B) Two level page table structure.
    (C) Inverted page table structure.
    (D) None of these.
99. A fetch policy for virtual memory determines
    (A) When a page should be bought into
    main memory.
    (B) Where in real memory a process piece
    is to be reside.
    (C) The selection of a page in memory that
    is to replaced.
    (D) The page in memory that is not been
    referenced for long time.
100. The demand paging and pre paging of virtual
     memory management are
     (A) Fetch policy for virtual memory
     management.
     (B) Placement policy for virtual memory
     management.
     (C) Replacement policy for virtual memory
     management.
     (D) None of these.
     (i) A- Fetch, B-Demand paging, C-Pre￾paging; 1-Determines when a page
     should be bought into main memory. 2-
     A page is bought into main memory only
     when a reference is made to a location
     on that page. 3-Pages other than the
     one demanded by a page fault are
     bought in.
     (E) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3
     (F) A – 3, B – 2, C – 1
     (G) A – 2, B – 3, C – 1
     (H) A – 3, B – 1, C – 2
101. When process is swapped out of main
     memory and put in a suspended state
     (A) All of its resident pages are moved out.
     (B) All of the pages that were previously in
     main memory are returned to main
     memory.
     (C) Pages other than the one demanded by
     a page fault are bought in main memory.
     (D) None of these.
102. Statement A: The placement policy
     determines where in real memory a process
     piece is to reside. Statement B: The fetch
     policy determines when a page should be
     bought into main memory.
     (A) A and B both true
     (B) A and B both false
     (C) A is true, B is false
     (D) A is false, B is true
103. When a frame in main memory is locked
     (A) The page currently stored in that frame
     can be replaced.
     (B) The page currently stored in that frame
     cannot be replaced.
     (C) Pages currently in frame can be
     removed in round-robin style.
     (D) None of these.
104. Statement A : In memory management, the
     replacement policy deals with the selection
     of pages in memory to be replaced by arrived
     new page. Statement B: In memory
     management, the policy the fetch policy
     determines when a page should be bought
     into main memory.
     (A) A and B both false
     (B) A and B both true
     (C) A is true, B is false
     (D) A is false, B is true
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 71
105. The Least Recently Used (LRU) policy
     (A) Replaces the page in memory that has
     not been referenced for the least time.
     (B) Replaces the page in memory that has
     not been referenced for the longest
     time.
     (C) Replaces the page in memory in round
     robin fashion.
     (D) None of these.
106. In memory management where replacement
     is allowed in First-in-First-out (FIFO) fashion
     (A) The page frames are allocated to a
     process as circular buffer and pages
     are removed in random order.
     (B) The page frames are allocated to a
     process as circular buffer and pages
     are removed in round-robin order.
     (C) Replaces the pages that are least
     referred.
     (D) Replaces the pages that are most
     referred.
107. By principle of locality, in least recently used
     policy, in memory management
     (A) The page replaced in memory is least
     likely to be referenced in the near future.
     (B) The page replaced in memory is most
     likely to be referenced in the near future.
     (C) The pages replaced in memory in
     round-robin fashion.
     (D) None of these.
108. In First-In-First-out (FIFO) replacement policy
     used in memory management, the page
     frames to allocated to a process as circular
     buffer and
     (A) The most recent page is removed at first
     (B) The most recent page is removed at the
     last
     (C) The most recent page is removed any
     time
     (D) None of these
109. The memory management, y one clock policy
     is applied then the page first loaded into a
     frame in memory its use bit is set to
     (A) Zero (B) One
     (C) Two (D) Three
110. In memory management Free page list is:
     A- A list of page frames available for reading
     in pages. B- A list where replaced page is
     assigned without modification. C-A list where
     replaced page is assigned with modification.
     (A) A, B, C are true (B) A and B are true
     (C) A and C are true (D) B and C are true.
111. A policy in memory management referred as
     clock policy because one can visualize the
     page frames as laid out in
     (A) Straight line (B) Rectangle
     (C) Circle (D) Square
112. In memory management :A-Fixed allocation
     policy, B-Variable allocation policy: 1-It gives
     a process a fixed number of frames in main
     memory within which to execute. 2-It allows
     the number of page frames allocated to a
     process to be varied over the life time of the
     process. 3-In it a number of allocated frames
     are decided at initial load time.
     (A) A – 1, 3, B – 2 (B) A – 1, B – 3
     (C) A – 2, B – 1, 3 (D) A – 1, 2, B – 3
113. In uni-processor scheduling :A : Turnaround
     time, B : Response time, 1: A time interval
     between the submission of a process and
     its completion. 2: For interactive process, it
     is a time from the submission of a request
     until the response begins to received. 3: It
     includes actual execution time plus time
     spent waiting for resources.
     (A) A – 2, 2, B – 3 (B) A – 1, 3, B – 2
     (C) A – 2, B – 1, 2 (D) A – 2, B – 1, 3
114. In uni-processor management processor
     through put
     (A) Is a measure of how much work is being
     performed
     (B) Is the percentage of time that the
     processor is busy
     (C) Is a time interval between the
     submission of a process and its
     completion
     (D) None of these
115. In uni-processor scheduling, a priorities
     enforcement is
     (A) When processes are assigned priorities
     and scheduling policy favor higher
     priority processes.
     (B) The scheduling keeps resources of
     system busy.
     (C) Here currently running process can be
     interrupted and moved to ready state by
     the operating system.
     (D) None of these.
116. In uni-processor scheduling, if non￾preemptive policy is applied then
     (A) Once a process is in running state, it
     continues to execute until it terminates
     or block itself.
     (B) Currently running process can be
     interrupted and moved to ready state by
     the operating system.
     72 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
     (C) The clock interrupt is generated at
     periodic intervals.
     (D) None of these.
117. In aperiodic (real time) tasks
     (A) The dead line for start is mandatory, but
     for finish it is not.
     (B) The dead line for finish is mandatory,
     but for start it is not.
     (C) The dead line for finish and start is
     mandatory.
     (D) The dead line for finish and start is not
     mandatory.
118. The time table of railway, and airline which
     defines arrival and departure can be
     considered as
     (A) Hard real time scheduling
     (B) Soft real time scheduling
     (C) None real time scheduling.
     (D) None of these.
119. When preemptive policy is applied to uni￾processor scheduling then
     (A) Once a process is in running state, it
     continues to execute until it terminates
     or block itself.
     (B) Currently running process can be
     interrupted and moved to ready state by
     the operating system.
     (C) The processes are assigned priorities.
     (D) None of these.
120. The normalized turnaround time is
     (A) Ratio of turnaround time to service time
     (B) Ratio of turnaround time to waiting time
     (C) Ratio of service time to waiting time
     (D) Ratio of waiting time to service time.
121. In uni-processor scheduling, shortest
     process next policy is
     (i) A: Non-preemptive policy
     (ii) B: Preemptive policy
     (iii) C: A policy where the process with
     shortest expected processing time is
     selected next.
     (iv) D: A policy where the process with
     shortest expected processing time is
     not selected.
     (B) A and D are true (C) B and C are true
     (D) A and C are true (e) B and D are true.
122. In uni-processor scheduling, shortest
     remaining time policy is
     (A) A policy where scheduler chooses the
     process that has the shortest expected
     remaining processing time.
     (B) A policy where scheduler discards the
     process that has the shortest expected
     remaining process time.
     (C) A policy where process with shortest
     expected processing time is selected
     next.
     (D) None of these.
123. In round robin (time slicing) policy applied
     on uni-processor scheduling
     (A) When interrupt occurs, the currently
     running process is placed in ready
     queue, and next ready job is selected in
     First come First serve basis.
     (B) When interrupt occurs, the currently
     running process is placed in ready
     queue and next ready job is selected in
     random order.
     (C) No interruption is entertained.
     (D) None of these.
124. If normalized turnaround time of different
     process are given. Then Highest
     response ratio next policy in uni￾processor scheduling policy selects.
     (A) The ready process with lowest
     normalized turnaround time.
     (B) The ready process with highest
     normalized turnaround time.
     (C) The process with shortest expected
     processing time.
     (D) The process with highest expected
     processing time.
125. In multi processor scheduling, independent
     parallelism indicates
     (A) There is synchronization among
     processes at gross level.
     (B) There is no explicit synchronization
     among processes.
     (C) A parallel processing or multi tasking is
     done within a single application.
     (D) None of these.
126. In multi processor scheduling : A: Course
     gained parallelism, B: Medium grained
     parallelism, C: Fine grained parallelism; 1-
     Concurrent processes running on a multi
     programmed uni- processor. 2- Parallel
     processing or multi tasking is done within a
     single application. 3- Parallel processing is
     done within a single instruction stream.
     (A) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3
     (B) A – 2, B – 3, C – 1
     (C) A – 3, B – 2, C – 1
     (D) A – 1, B – 3, C – 2
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 73
127. In round robin (time slicing) policy applied
     on uni processor scheduling
     (A) When interrupt occurs, the currently
     running process is placed in ready
     queue, and next ready job is selected in
     First come First serve basis.
     (B) When interrupt occurs, the currently
     running process is placed in ready
     queue and next ready job is selected in
     random order.
     (C) No interruption is entertained.
     (D) None of these.
128. If normalized turnaround time of different
     process are given. Then Highest response
     ratio next policy in uni processor scheduling
     policy selects
     (A) The ready process with lowest
     normalized turnaround time.
     (B) The ready process with highest
     normalized turnaround time.
     (C) The process with shortest expected
     processing time.
     (D) The process with highest expected
     processing time.
129. In multi processor scheduling, independent
     parallelism indicates
     (A) There is synchronization among
     processes at gross level.
     (B) There is no explicit synchronization
     among processes.
     (C) A parallel processing or multi tasking is
     done within a single application.
     (D) None of these.
130. In multi processor scheduling; A: Coarse
     gained parallelism, B: Medium grained
     parallelism, C: Fine grained parallelism; 1-
     Concurrent processes running on a multi
     programmed uni processor, 2 Parallel
     processing or multi tasking is done within a
     single application, 3-Parallel processing is
     done within a single instruction stream.
     (A) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3
     (B) A – 2, B – 3, C – 1
     (C) A – 3, B – 2, C – 1
     (D) A – 1, B – 3, C – 2
131. A situation where two or more processes
     coordinate their activities based on a
     condition is referred as
     (A) Synchronization (B) Dead lock
     (C) Starvation (D) Par begin
132. Par begin (P1)
     (A) Suspends main program, execute
     procedure P1 and after execution
     resume main program.
     (B) Procedure P1 is delayed infinitely due
     to other procedure are given preference.
     (C) Procedure P1 is not considered for
     execution.
     (D) None of these.
133. The mail box and ports are examples of
     (A) Indirect process communication
     (B) Direct process communication.
     (C) Both A and B true
     (D) None is true
134. In Dynamic partition of main memory in
     memory management, the sized of process
     and memory partition is
     (A) of exactly same size
     (B) of different size.
     (C) Both A and B true
     (D) None is true
135. In the simple paging in memory
     management where
     (A) Process can be loaded into a partition
     of equal or greater size.
     (B) Process is loaded into a partition of
     exactly same size.
     (C) Process is divided into a number of
     equal size pages of same length as of
     frames.
     (D) None of these.
136. A. Absolute Loading B. Relocatable Loading
     C. Dynamic Run-Time Loading; 1- It requires
     that a load module always be loaded into
     some location in main memory. 2- A load
     module can be located anywhere in main
     memory.
     (A) A – 2, B – 1, C – 1
     (B) A – 1, B – 1, C – 2
     (C) A – 1, B – 2, C – 2
     (D) A – 1, B – 2, C – 1
137. The disk and tape devices are referred as
     (A) Block oriented I/O devices
     (B) Stream oriented I/O devices
     (C) Logical I/O devices
     (D) None of these
138. Which of the following is not human readable
     I/O device ?
     (A) Video display terminals
     (B) Key board
     (C) Printers
     (D) Disk drives
     74 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
139. Following is not the stream oriented I/O
     device
     (A) Printer
     (B) Mouse
     (C) Communication modules
     (D) Disk/tape
140. The direct memory access (DM(A) module
     (A) Controls the data exchange between
     main memory and I/O module.
     (B) The processor issues I/O command,
     execute subsequent instructions and
     interrupt I/O module.
     (C) The processor issues I/O commands
     to an I/O module.
     (D) None of these.
141. In disk scheduling, the seek time is
     (A) The time taken to position the head at
     the track.
     (B) The time taken to reach the beginning
     of sector once the track is selected.
     (C) A and B both.
     (D) None of these.
142. The access time in disk scheduling is
     (A) The time taken to position the head at
     the track.
     (B) The time taken to reach the beginning
     of the sector of the track.
     (C) The sum of seek time and rotational
     delay.
     (D) None of these.
143. The transfer time in disk scheduling is
     (A) Proportional to rotation speed.
     (B) Inversely proportional to rotation speed.
     (C) Equal to rotation speed.
     (D) None of these.
144. In last- in-first- out, disk scheduling policy
     (A) Recently received request is entertained
     at the last.
     (B) Recently received request is entertained
     first.
     (C) Requests are selected at random
     (D) None of these.
145. In disk scheduling, SCAN algorithm states
     (A) The arm is required to move in one
     direction only.
     (B) The arm can be moved in any direction.
     (C) The arm is fixed.
     (D) None of these.
146. RAID (Redundant Array of Independent
     Disks) scheme consists of
     (A) Five levels from one to six.
     (B) Six levels, from zero to five.
     (C) Seven levels, from zero to six.
     (D) None of these.
147. In RAID scheme, which of the RAID level does
     not use parity calculation in redundancy
     achievement
     (A) RAID 4 (B) RAID 3
     (C) RAID 2 (D) RAID 1
148. In system buffer cache, used in UNIX,
     following not true
     (A) It is a disk cache
     (B) It is not a disk cache
     (C) Data transfer between buffer cache and
     user process space always occurs
     using DMA.
     (D) I/O operations with disk are handled
     through buffer code.
149. In disk scheduling, the shortest service time
     first policy selects the disk request that
     (A) In cure the maximum seek time
     (B) In cure the minimum seek time
     (C) Is received first
     (D) Is received at last.
150. The C–SCAN, in disk scheduling states
     (A) The arm movement is uni directional
     (B) The arm movement is bidirectional
     (C) The are is to be state fixed
     (D) None of these.
151. RAID-O does not support the following
     characteristics: A: RAID is a set of physical
     disk drives viewed by the operating system
     as a single logical drive. B: Data distributed
     across the physical drives of an array. C: Re￾demdant disk capacity is used to store parity
     information, which guarantees data
     recoverability in case of a disk failure.
     (A) A and B (B) A only
     (C) B only (D) C only
152. The UNIX scheduling gives
     (A) Highest preference to real time
     processes
     (B) Highest preference to kernel mode
     processes
     (C) Highest preference to user mode
     processes
     (D) Highest preference to shared
     processes.
153. In disk scheduling when SCAN (Look) policy
     is applied and when last track reached
     in one direction
     (A) The service direction is reversed and
     scan proceeds in opposite direction.
     (B) The arm returns to the opposite end of
     the disk and scan begins again.
     (C) A and B both true.
     (D) None of these.
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 75
154. In RAID (Redundant Array of Independent
     Disks) scheme, which of the following RAID
     level does not include redundancy to improve
     performance ?
     (A) RAID level 0 (B) RAID level 1
     (C) RAID level 2 (D) RAID level 4
155. In which of the following RAID scheme,
     redundancy is achieved by the simple
     expedient of duplicating all the data ?
     (A) RAID level 0 (B) RAID level 1
     (C) RAID level 2 (D) RAID level 3
156. In shortest service time first policy, applied
     on disk scheduling, the disk request is
     selected
     (A) That requires the least movement of disk
     arm from its current position.
     (B) That requires the maximum movement
     of disk arm from its current position.
     (C) That is recently received.
     (D) On random.
157. The RAID (Redundant Array of Independent
     Disks) level one requires
     (A) Same disk space of the logical disk that
     it support.
     (B) Twice disk space of the logical disk that
     it support.
     (C) Thrice disk space of the logical disk that
     it support.
     (D) Half disk space of the logical disk that it
     support.
158. Match the following in RAID scheme : A￾Parallel access array, B-Independent
     access array, 1- All member disks participate
     in the execution of every I/O request. 2- Each
     member disk participates separately in the
     execution of every I/O request. 3- Here
     spindles of the individual drives are
     synchronized so that each disk head is in
     the same position on each disk at any given
     time.
     (A) A – 1, 3 and B – 2
     (B) A – 1, and B – 2, 3
     (C) A – 2 and B – 1, 3
     (D) A – 1, 2 and B – 3
159. The following RAID level employer parallel
     access technique and single redundant disk
     (A) RAID level 0 (B) RAID level 1
     (C) RAID level 2 (D) RAID level 3
160. The RAID scheme indicate
     (A) Random access of information data.
     (B) Random array of independent disks.
     (C) Redundant array of independent disks.
     (D) Redundant access of information data.
161. Which of the RAID level does not employ
     independent access technique ?
     (A) RAID 6 (B) RAID 5
     (C) RAID 4 (D) RAID 3
162. Which of the following RAID level uses
     independent access technique and
     distributes the parity strips across all disks?
     (A) Two (B) Three
     (C) Four (D) Five
163. Cache memory is
     (A) Bigger and slower than main memory
     (B) Bigger and faster that main memory
     (C) Smaller and slower than main memory
     (D) Smaller and faster than main memory
164. By principle of locality, cache memory
     (A) Increases average memory access
     time.
     (B) Reduces average memory access time
     (C) Does not affect the average memory
     access time
     (D) None of these
165. Following is not true for disk cache
     (A) It is a buffer in main memory for disk
     sector
     (B) It contains the copy of some of the sector
     on the disk
     (C) It is bigger is size than main memory
     (D) It is smaller is size than main memory
166. In disk storage devices, data are recorded
     on and later retrieved from disk via a
     conducting coil named
     (A) Tail (B) Foot
     (C) Head (D) Hand.
167. In disk storage devices during read and write
     operation
     (A) Head is rotate while platter is stationary
     (B) Head is stationary while platter rotates
     (C) Head and platter are both stationary
     (D) None is true
168. In magnetic disk, density that is in bits per
     linear inch
     (A) Increases in moving from the outer most
     track to the inner most track.
     (B) Decreases in moving from the outer
     most track to the inner most track.
     (C) Remains same in moving from the outer
     most track to the inner most track.
     (D) Randomly distributed in moving from the
     outer most track to the inner most track.
     76 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
169. Data from and to magnetic disk is
     transformed in
     (A) Continuation
     (B) Blocks
     (C) Block and Continuation both
     (D) None of these.
170. On magnetic disks, the data on the platter is
     organized in a concentric sets of rings called
     (A) Sectors (B) Gaps
     (C) Rings (D) Tracks
171. In disk storage devices the width of head is:
     (A) Same of the track
     (B) More than of the track
     (C) Less than of the track
     (D) None is true.
172. In a fixed head disk, the number of read/write
     head per track are
     (A) One (B) Two
     (C) Three (D) Four.
173. CD defines
     (A) Computer device
     (B) Computer disk
     (C) Compact disk
     (D) None of these
174. A-Fixed-Head disk, B-Movable-Head disk, 1-
     One head per track and al head are mounted
     on rigid arm that extends across all tracks.
     2- Only one head and head is mounted on
     the arm, such that it can position the track.
     (A) A – 1, B – 2 (B) A – 2, B – 1
     (C) A – 1, B – 1 (D) A – 2, B – 2
175. The record is the collection of
     (A) Fields (B) Files
     (C) Data base (D) None of these.
176. In File system architecture which is the
     correct arrangement from lower level to
     higher.
     (A) Device drives, basic file system, basic I/
     O supervisor, logical I/O.
     (B) Basic file system, basic I/O, logical I/O,
     device drives.
     (C) Basic I/O, basic file system, logical I/O,
     device drives.
     (D) None of these.
177. In file management system the following
     communicate directly with periphing I/O
     devices.
     (A) Device drives
     (B) Basic file system
     (C) Basic I/O supervisor
     (D) Logical I/O.
178. For file management, in file operations
     device drivers are
     (A) Disk drivers (B) Tape drivers
     (C) A and B both (D) None of these.
179. In file management, the primary interface of
     computer system with external environment
     is done through
     (A) Device drivers
     (B) Basic file system
     (C) Basic I/O supervisor
     (D) Logical I/O.
180. In file management, users and applications
     access records via
     (A) Physical I/O (B) Basic I/O supervisor
     (C) Logical I/O (D) None of these.
181. Match the following for file system
     architecture : A-Basic file system, B-Logical
     I/O module, 1- Deals with blocks of data, 2-
     Deals with file records, 3- Provides general
     purpose record I/O capacity.
     (A) A – 1, B – 2, 3 (B) A – 1, 2, B – 3
     (C) A – 2, 3, B – 1 (D) A – 1, 3, B – 2
182. Match the following access rights :A-Specific
     user, B-User group, C-All ; 1- Individual user
     who are designated by user I, 2-A set of users
     who are individually defined, 3-Every user
     has access to the system.
     (A) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3
     (B) A – 2, B – 1, C – 3
     (C) A – 1, B – 3, C – 2
     (D) A – 3, B – 2, C – 1
183. In file management, the pile
     (A) The collection of data in order which they
     arrive.
     (B) A fixed format used for records.
     (C) Records keep with some key sequence.
     (D) None of these.
184. In file management, in the following record
     blocking method, the optional use of space
     is made, without unused space left
     (A) Fixed blocking
     (B) Variable-length spanned blocking
     (C) Variable-length un-spanned blocking
     (D) None of these.
185. In secondary storage management, “If
     allocation of file is made on an individual
     block basis and each block contains a
     pointer to the next block in the chain” then it
     is referred as
     (A) Contiguous allocation
     (B) Chained allocation
     (C) Indexed allocation
     (D) None of these.
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 77
186. In secondary storage management, bit table,
     for each block on disk a vector contains
     (A) One bit each block
     (B) Two bit each block
     (C) Three bit each block
     (D) Four bit each block.
187. In bit table used for Free space management
     in secondary storage
     (A) Bit zero corresponds to free block
     (B) Bit one corresponds to free block
     (C) Bit zero corresponds to block in use
     (D) None of these
188. The amount of memory (in bytes) required
     for a block bitmap is
     (A) Disk size × 8
     (B) Disk size/ (8 × file system block size)
     (C) File system block size/disk size
     (D) None of these.
189. In 16 G byte disk with 512-bit block, the bit
     table requires
     (A) 1 M bytes (B) 2 M bytes
     (C) 3 M bytes (D) 4 M bytes.
190. Application Programming Interface is
     (A) A set of function and call programs that
     allows clients and servers to
     intercommunicate.
     (B) A database, where information access
     is limited to the selection of rows that
     satisfy all search criteria.
     (C) A computer usually a high powered work
     station.
     (D) None of these.
191. If in a computer networking environment
     when all the processing is done on single
     computer can be referred as
     (A) Host based processing
     (B) Server based processing
     (C) Client based processing
     (D) None of these.
192. In three tier client/server architecture
     application software match the following: A￾User machine, 1-Client, B- Middle-tier, 2-
     Application server, C- Backend server, 3 Data
     servers.
     (A) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3
     (B) A – 1, B – 3, C – 2
     (C) A – 2, B – 1, C – 3
     (D) A – 3, B – 2, C – 1
193. UNIX was developed by
     (A) Bell Labs for PDP-7 in 1970
     (B) Microsoft for IBM computers
     (C) Macintosh
     (D) None of these.
194. UNIX is a
     (A) Operating system
     (B) Hardware
     (C) Programming language
     (D) None of these.
195. In UNIX process management, the system
     process runs in
     (A) Kernel mode only
     (B) Kernel and user mode both
     (C) User mode only
     (D) None of these.
196. In UNIX process management, the user
     processes runs in
     (A) Kernel mode only
     (B) Kernel and user mode both
     (C) User mode only
     (D) None of these.
197. In UNIX process management, the following
     is true
     (A) User process enters kernel mode by
     issuing a system call when interrupt
     occurs.
     (B) Kernel mode is executed in user
     process.
     (C) User process enters kernel mode with
     out issuing a system call when interrupt
     occurs.
     (D) None of these.
198. The number of process states recognized
     by UNIX
     (A) Two (B) Nine
     (C) Eight (D) Seven.
199. In process management of UNIX system,
     which of the following process states are
     running states in respect of whether the
     process is executing in user or kernel mode
     (A) Ready to run (in memory) state
     (B) Ready to run (in swappe(D) state
     (C) Preempted state
     (D) A and C are true
200. A task in a blocked state is
     (A) Executable
     (B) Waiting for some temporarily unavailable
     resource
     (C) Running
     (D) None of these
     78 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
201. Semaphores
     (A) are used to do I/O
     (B) Synchronize critical resources to prevent
     contention
     (C) synchronize critical resources to prevent
     deadlock.
     (D) allow processes to communicate with
     one another.
202. Priorities
     (A) are used to schedule processes
     (B) increase as a process remains in the
     processor
     (C) are attached to each page in the system
     (D) are assigned by the user.
203. Dijkstra’s banker’s algorithm in an
     operating-system solves the problem of
     (A) deadlock avoidance
     (B) deadlock recovery
     (C) mutual exclusion
     (D) context switching
204. Which structure prohibits the sharing of files
     and directories
     (A) tree structure
     (B) one level structure
     (C) two level structure
     (D) none of these
205. With round-robin CPU scheduling in a time
     shared system
     (A) using very large time slices
     degenerates into First-Come First
     Served Algorithm
     (B) using extremely small time slices
     improves performance
     (C) using very small time slices degenerate
     into Last-In-First-Out algorithm
     (D) using medium sized time slices leades
     to Shortest Request Time First
     algorithm.
206. The portion of the process scheduler in an
     operating system that dispatches
     processes is concerned with
     (A) activating suspended I/O-bound
     processes
     (B) temporarily suspending processes
     when CPU load is too great
     (C) assigning ready processes to the CPU
     (D) all of the above
207. Following is the correct definition of a valid
     process transition within an operating
     system
     (A) wake up : ready – running
     (B) dispatch: ready – running
     (C) block: ready – blocked
     (D) timer run out : ready – blocked
208. I/O redirection
     (A) implies changing the name of a file
     (B) can be employed to use an exiting file
     as input file for a program
     (C) implies connection to programs through
     a pipe
     (D) none of the above
209. When an interrupt occurs, an operating
     system
     (A) ignores the interrupt
     (B) always changes state of interrupted
     process after processing the interrupt
     (C) always resumes execution of interrupted
     process after processing the interrupt
     (D) may change state of interrupted process
     to blocked and schedule another
     process
210. Thrashing
     (A) reduces page I/O
     (B) decreases the degree of multi￾programming
     (C) implies excessive page I/O
     (D) improve the system performance
211. Dirty bit for a page in a page table
     (A) helps avoid unnecessary writes on a
     paging device
     (B) helps maintain LRU information
     (C) allows only read on a page
     (D) none of the above
212. A set of resources allocations such that the
     system can allocate resources to each
     process is some order, and still avoid a dead
     lock is called
     (A) unsafe state (B) safe state
     (C) Starvation (D) Greedy allocation
213. A disk scheduling algorithm in an operating
     system causes the disk arm to seek back
     and forth access the disc surface servicing
     all request in its path, this is a
     (A) first come first served
     (B) shortest seek time first
     (C) scan
     (D) None of these
214. An attached processor
     (A) is used one only a few computers
     (B) causes all processor to function equally
     (C) is more difficult to implement than a co￾processor
     (D) is used only for limited, specific
     functions
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 79
215. Process is
     (A) a program in high level language kept
     on disk
     (B) contents of main memory
     (C) a program in execution
     (D) a job in secondary memory
216. Situations where two or more processes are
     reading or writing some shared data and
     the final result depends on who runs
     precisely which are called
     (A) race condition
     (B) critical sections
     (C) mutual exclusions
     (D) message passing
217. Producer consumer problem can be solved
     using
     (A) Semaphores (B) Event counters
     (C) Monitors (D) All of the above
218. The strategy of allowing process that are
     logically run able to be temporarily
     suspended is called
     (A) preemptive scheduling
     (B) non preemptive scheduling
     (C) shortest job first
     (D) first come first served
219. Moving process from main memory to disk
     is called
     (A) Scheduling (B) Cache
     (C) Swapping (D) Spooling
220. Banker’s algorithm for resource allocation
     deals with
     (A) deadlock prevention
     (B) deadlock avoidance
     (C) deadlock recovery
     (D) mutual exclusion
221. The dispatcher
     (A) actually schedules the tasks into the
     processor
     (B) is always very small and simple
     (C) puts tasks in wait
     (D) None of these
222. A set or resource allocations such that the
     system can allocate resources to each
     process in some order, and still avoids a
     deadlock is called
     (A) unsafe state (B) safe state
     (C) starvation (D) greedy allocation
223. Processor-bound tasks
     (A) use the processor more often
     (B) use more processor time
     (C) use less processor time
     (D) always take longer to execute
224. The following resources can cause
     deadlocks
     (A) Read only files (B) Shared programs
     (C) Printers (D) All of the above
225. Complex scheduling algorithms
     (A) use more resources than they gain
     (B) recover more resources than they use
     (C) always use many resources
     (D) are most appropriate for very large
     computers
226. The intensive jobs
     (A) use less processor time than most jobs
     (B) you are constrained by their I/O
     requirements
     (C) run more quickly than processor￾intensive jobs
     (D) should all be executed at the same time
227. The FIFO algorithm
     (A) executes first the job that last entered
     the queue
     (B) executes first the job that first entered
     the queue
     (C) executes first the job with the least
     processor needs
     (D) executes first the job that has been in
     the queue the longest
228. Check pointing a job
     (A) allows it to be completed successfully
     (B) allows it to continue executing later
     (C) prepares it for finishing
     (D) occurs only when there is an error in it
229. Windows is an
     (A) operating system
     (B) operating environment
     (C) user interface
     (D) programming platform
230. Following is/are operating system used in
     computers
     (A) MS-DOS (B) OS/2
     (C) UNIX (D) All of the above
231. The following operating system writes
     through catches?
     (A) UNIX (B) DOS
     (C) ULTRIX (D) XENIX
232. Which is/are the most important features of
     Microsoft windows program?
     (A) Windows (B) Pull-down menus
     (C) Icons (D) All of the above
233. Multiprocessing models have
     (A) symmetric multiprocessing model
     (B) asymmetric multiprocessing model
     (C) both (A) and (B) above
     (D) None of these
     80 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
234. Real-time systems are
     (A) primarily used on mainframe computers
     (B) used for monitoring events as they occur
     (C) used for program development
     (D) used for real-time interactive users.
235. Multiprogramming systems
     (A) are easier to develop than single
     programming systems
     (B) execute each job faster
     (C) execute more jobs in the same time
     period
     (D) are used only one large mainframe
     computers
236. Virtual memory is
     (A) simple to implement
     (B) used on all major commercial operating
     systems
     (C) less efficient in utilization of memory
     (D) useful when fast I/O devices are not
     available
237. Memory management is
     (A) not used in modern operating systems
     (B) replaced with virtual memory on current
     systems
     (C) not used on multiprogramming systems
     (D) critical for even the simplest operating
     systems
238. Scheduling is
     (A) allowing job to use the processor
     (B) making proper use of processor
     (C) Both A and B
     (D) None of these
239. Following is true for Multiprocessing
     (A) It makes the operating system simpler
     (B) It allows multiple processes to run
     simultaneously
     (C) It allows the same computer to have
     multiple processors
     (D) None of these
240. A monitor program is a program that
     (A) interprets the interrupt calls
     (B) restores the status of the CPU after a
     function call
     (C) interprets the input from a keyboard and
     converts the input into its binary
     equivalent
     (D) checks the status of the I/O devices
241. The process scheduler in the processor
     management unit
     (A) gives all jobs to the job scheduler
     (B) selects a job to run
     (C) selects a process to run
     (D) co-ordinates the process synchronization
242. Round robin is a
     (A) kind of magnetic drum
     (B) process scheduling policy
     (C) process synchronization policy
     (D) memory allocation policy
243. Which is the correct definition of a valid
     process transition in an operating system?
     (A) Wake up: ready ? running
     (B) Dispatch: ready? running
     (C) Block: ready ? running
     (D) Timer runout : ready ? blocked
244. A critical section is a program segment
     (A) which should run in a certain specified
     amount of time
     (B) which avoids deadlocks
     (C) where shared resources are accessed
     (D) which must be enclosed by a pair of
     semaphore operations.
245. Which of the following is an example of a
     spooled device?
     (A) A line printer used to print the output of a
     number of jobs
     (B) A terminal used to enter input data to a
     running program
     (C) A secondary storage device in a virtual
     memory system
     (D) A graphic display device
246. A solution to the Dining Philosophers
     Problem which avoids deadlock is
     (A) ensure that all philosophers pick up the
     left fork before the right fork.
     (B) ensure that all philosophers pick up the
     right fork before the left fork.
     (C) ensure that one particular philosopher
     picks up the left fork before the right fork,
     and all other philosophers pick up the
     right fork before the left fork.
     (D) none of the above
247. Locality of reference implies that the page
     reference being made by a process
     (A) will always be to the page used in the
     previous page reference
     (B) is likely to be to one of the pages used
     in the last few page references
     (C) will always be to one of the pages
     existing in memory
     (D) will always lead to a page fault
248. The correct matching for the following pairs
     is – (A) Disk sucheduling, (1) Round robin,
     (B) Batch processing, (2) SCAN ,(C) Time
     sharing, (3) LIFO, (D) Interrupt processing,
     (4) FIFO,
     (A) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
     (B) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
     (C) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
     (D) None of these
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 81
249. Shared sub-directories and files are
     example of
     (A) cyclic graph directory
     (B) tree structured direction
     (C) one level directory
     (D) none of these
250. The lowest level of I/O control consists of
     (A) device drivers
     (B) interrupt handlers
     (C) both A and B above
     (D) none of the above
251. Which type of design problem in file system
     (A) how the file system should look to the
     user
     (B) algorithm and data structure must be
     created to map the logical file system
     onto the secondary storage device
     (C) Both A and B above
     (D) none of the above
252. Of the following which is the methods for
     allocating disks
     (A) Contiguous (B) Linked
     (C) Indexed (D) All of the above
253. External fragmentation solved by which
     allocation?
     (A) contiguous allocation
     (B) linked allocation
     (C) index allocation
     (D) both B and C
254. Which O/I are best method for allocating?
     (A) Contiguous (B) Linked
     (C) Index (D) All of the above
255. Allocate the first hole that is big enough is
     called
     (A) first fit (B) best fit
     (C) worst fit (D) all of the above
256. Allocate the smallest hole that. is big enough
     is called
     (A) first fit (B) best fit
     (C) worst fit (D) all of the above
257. The most efficient data set organization is
     (A) a sequential file
     (B) an ISAM file
     (C) variable depending upon the usage of
     the data set
     (D) a partitioned data set
258. A partitioned data set is most used for
     (A) storing program data
     (B) storing ISAM files
     (C) a program or source library
     (D) storing backup information
259. Fragmentation of the file system
     (A) can always be prevented
     (B) occurs only if the file system is used
     improperly
     (C) can be temporarily removed by
     compaction
     (D) is a characteristic of all file systems
260. File record length
     (A) should always be fixed
     (B) should always be variable
     (C) depends upon the size of the file
     (D) should be chosen to match the data
     character
261. Disaster recovery
     (A) is needed by every installation
     (B) is never needed
     (C) varies in degree between installations
     (D) requires off-site computer for immediate
     use
262. Wild-card specifies
     (A) provide an easy way of finding groups
     of related files
     (B) are only used when printing the contents
     of files
     (C) can be used when writing a file
     (D) allow several files to be read
     simultaneously
263. The allocation map
     (A) is used to store program data
     (B) specifies which blocks are used by
     which file
     (C) is updated by applications programs
     (D) allows programs to erase files
264. The activity of a file
     (A) is a low percentage of number of
     records that are added to or deleted
     from a file
     (B) is a measure of the percentage of
     existing records updated during a run
     (C) refers to how closely the files fit into the
     allocated space
     (D) is a measure of the number of records
     added or deleted from a file compassed
     with the original number of records
265. The volatility of a file refers to
     (A) The number of records added or deleted
     from a file composed to the original
     number of records in that file
     (B) Efficiency with which non-sequential
     files are processed
     82 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
     (C) The extent where the records of the file
     are contiguous and in proximity to others
     (D) Percentage of records that has changed
     in a given time period
266. Which types of file organization are
     supported by magnetic tape?
     (A) random files
     (B) contiguous sequential file
     (C) indexed sequential file
     (D) all of the above
267. Address Binding is defined as
     (A) Compiler will typically bind these
     symbolic addresses to relocatable
     addressees
     (B) Each binding is a mapping from one
     address space to another
     (C) The linkage editor or loader win in turn
     bind these relocatable addresses to
     absolute addresses
     (D) All of the above
268. Compile time
     (A) where the process will reside in
     memory, then absolute code can be
     generated
     (B) where the process will reside in
     memory, then the compiler must
     generate relocatable code
     (C) if the process can be moved during its
     execution from one memory segment
     to another,the binding must be delayed
     until run time
     (D) all of the above
269. Load time
     (A) where the process will reside in
     memory, then absolute code can be
     generated
     (B) where the process will reside in
     memory, then the compiler must
     generate relocatable memory
     (C) if the process can be moved during its
     execution from one memory segment
     to another, then binding must be
     delayed until run time
     (D) all of the above
270. Execution time
     (A) where the process will reside in
     memory, then absolute code can be
     generated
     (B) where the process will reside in
     memory, then the compiler must
     generate relocatable code
     (C) if the process can be moved during its
     execution from one memory segment
     to another
     (D) all of the above
271. In dynamic loading
     (A) for better memory utilization use
     dynamic loading
     (B) it does not requires special support
     from the operating system
     (C) disadvantage is unused routine is never
     loaded
     (D) all of the above
272. Fragmentation of the file system
     (A) occurs only if the file system is used
     improperly
     (B) can always be prevented
     (C) can be temporarily removed by
     compaction
     (D) is the characteristic of all files system
273. Stub
     (A) is included in the image for each library
     routine reference
     (B) is small piece of code that indicates how
     to locate the appropriate memory
     resident library routine
     (C) how to load the library if the routine is
     not already present
     (D) all of the above
274. Local replacement
     (A) allows a process to select a replacement
     frame from the set of all frames
     (B) requires that each process selects from
     only its own set of allocated frames
     (C) both (A) and (B) above
     (D) none of the above
275. Thrashing
     (A) the high paging activity
     (B) is spending more time in paging than
     executing
     (C) both A and B above
     (D) none of the above
276. Thrashing can be avoided if
     (A) the pages, belonging to the working set
     of the programs are in main memory
     (B) the speed of CPU is increased
     (C) the speed of I/O processor is increased
     (D) all of the above
277. The memory allocation scheme subject to
     external fragmentation is
     (A) segmentation
     (B) swapping
     (C) pure demand paging
     (D) multiple contiguous fixed partitions
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 83
278. In virtual memory systems, dynamic address
     translation
     (A) is the hardware necessary to implement
     paging
     (B) stores pages at a specific location on disk
     (C) is useless when swapping is used
     (D) is the part of the operating system
     paging algorithm
279. Relocatable programs
     (A) cannot be used with fixed partitions
     (B) can be loaded almost anywhere in
     memory
     (C) do not need a linker
     (D) can be loaded only at one specific
     location
280. Fixed partitions
     (A) are very common in current operating
     systems
     (B) are very efficient in memory utilization
     (C) are very inefficient in memory utilization
     (D) are most used on large mainframe
     operating systems
281. Virtual system swapping
     (A) allocates all of memory to one program
     (B) pages working set pages in and out as
     a group
     (C) is never as efficient as normal paging
     (D) is used only on systems that are
     thrashing
282. The term paging refers to
     (A) boosting up the priority of a process in
     multilevel of queues without feedback
     (B) gradually increasing the priority of jobs
     that wait in the system for a long time to
     remedy infinite blocking
     (C) keeping track of the time a page has
     been in memory for the purpose of LRU
     replacement
     (D) letting job reside in memory for a certain
     amount of time, so that the number of
     pages required can be estimated
     accurately
283. With a segmentation, if there are 64
     segments, and the maximum segment size
     is 512 words, the length of the logical
     address in bits is
     (A) 12 (B) 14
     (C) 15 (D) 16
284. High paging rate
     (A) may cause high I/O rate
     (B) keeps the systems running well
     (C) is a symptom of too much processor
     activity
     (D) always creates a slow system
285. The total time to prepare a disk drive
     mechanism for a block of data to be read
     from it is
     (A) seek time
     (B) Latency
     (C) latency plus seek time
     (D) transmission time
286. Following illustrates Associative Memory
     (A) The address of the data is supplied by
     the user
     (B) Same as the tracks associated with disk
     memory
     (C) No need for address; information is
     used as address
     (D) Data is accessed serially
287. A disk scheduling algorithm in an operating
     system causes the disk arm to seek back
     and forth across the disk surface servicing
     all requests in its path, based on
     (A) First Come First Served
     (B) Shortest Seek Time First
     (C) Sean
     (D) None of these
288. Access to moving head disks requires three
     periods of delay before information is
     brought into memory. The response that
     correctly lists the three time delays for the
     physical access of data in the order of the
     relative speed from the slowest to the fastest
     is
     (A) latency time, cache overhead time, seek
     time
     (B) transmission time, latency time, seek
     time
     (C) seek time, latency time, transmission
     time
     (D) cache overhead time, latency time, seek
     time
289. An unpaged cache associates disk domains
     with the address of the read and continues
     for a specific length. The major disadvantage
     of unpaged cache is that
     (A) it allows cache domain to contain
     redundant data
     (B) it does not allow writes to be cached
     (C) its access time is greater than that of
     paged caching
     (D) read ahead cache domain blocks are
     necessarily fixed in size
     84 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
290. UNIX recognizes following I/O devices
     (A) Disk and Tape drives
     (B) Terminals
     (C) Communication lines
     (D) All the above.
     Answer Sheet
291. (C) 2. (A) 3. (C) 4. (B) 5. (D)
292. (C) 7. (D) 8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (A)
293. (A) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (A)
294. (A) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (A)
295. (B) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (D)
296. (B) 27. (A) 28. (A) 29. (B) 30. (C)
297. (B) 32. (C) 33. (C) 34. (A) 35. (C)
298. (D) 37. (A) 38. (A) 39. (A) 40. (B)
299. (C) 42. (D) 43. (A) 44. (A) 45. (B)
300. (A) 47. (A) 48. (B) 49. (A) 50. (D)
301. (D) 52. (B) 53. (B) 54. (B) 55. (C)
302. (A) 57. (D) 58. (A) 59. (A) 60. (D)
303. (C) 62. (A) 63. (A) 64. (B) 65. (B)
304. (B) 67. (A) 68. (A) 69. (A) 70. (A)
305. (A) 72. (A) 73. (B) 74. (A) 75. (A)
306. (C) 77. (A) 78. (B) 79. (A) 80. (A)
307. (D) 82. (B) 83. (B) 84. (A) 85. (A)
308. (A) 87. (D) 88. (A) 89. (B) 90. (A)
309. (A) 92. (C) 93. (B) 94. (B) 95. (B)
310. (A) 97. (A) 98. (C) 99. (A) 100. (A)
311. (A) 102. (A) 103. (B) 104. (B) 105. (B)
312. (B) 107. (A) 108. (B) 109. (B) 110. (B)
313. (C) 112. (A) 113. (B) 114. (A) 115. (A)
314. (A) 117. (C) 118. (A) 119. (B) 120. (A)
315. (D) 122. (A) 123. (A) 124. (B) 125. (B)
316. (A) 127. (A) 128. (B) 129. (B) 130. (A)
317. (A) 132. (A) 133. (A) 134. (A) 135. (C)
318. (C) 137. (A) 138. (D) 139. (D) 140. (A)
319. (A) 142. (C) 143. (A) 144. (B) 145. (A)
320. (C) 147. (D) 148. (B) 149. (B) 150. (C)
321. (D) 152. (A) 153. (A) 154. (A) 155. (B)
322. (A) 157. (B) 158. (A) 159. (D) 160. (D)
323. (D) 162. (D) 163. (D) 164. (B) 165. (C)
324. (C) 167. (B) 168. (A) 169. (B) 170. (D)
325. (A) 172. (A) 173. (C) 174. (A) 175. (A)
326. (A) 177. (A) 178. (C) 179. (B) 180. (C)
327. (A) 182. (A) 183. (A) 184. (B) 185. (B)
328. (A) 187. (A) 188. (B) 189. (D) 190. (A)
329. (A) 192. (A) 193. (A) 194. (A) 195. (A)
330. (B) 197. (A) 198. (B) 199. (D) 200. (B)
331. (C) 202. (A) 203. (A) 204. (D) 205. (A)
332. (C) 207. (B) 208. (B) 209. (D) 210. (C)
333. (A) 212. (B) 213. (C) 214. (D) 215. (C)
334. (A) 217. (D) 218. (A) 219. (C) 220. (B)
335. (A) 222. (B) 223. (B) 224. (C) 225. (D)
336. (B) 227. (B) 228. (B) 229. (C) 230. (D)
337. (B) 232. (D) 233. (C) 234. (B) 235. (C)
338. (C) 237. (B) 238. (C) 239. (C) 240. (C)
339. (C) 242. (B) 243. (B) 244. (C) 245. (A)
340. (C) 247. (B) 248. (A) 249. (A) 250. (C)
341. (C) 252. (B) 253. (D) 254. (B) 255. (A)
342. (B) 257. (C) 258. (C) 259. (C) 260. (C)
343. (C) 262. (A) 263. (B) 264. (A) 265. (A)
344. (B) 267. (D) 268. (A) 269. (B) 270. (C)
345. (D) 272. (C) 273. (D) 274. (B) 275. (C)
346. (A) 277. (A) 278. (A) 279. (B) 280. (C)
347. (D) 282. (B) 283. (C) 284. (A) 285. (C)
348. (C) 287. (C) 288. (C) 289. (A) 290. (D)
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 85
     SOFTWARE ENGINEERING
349. Computer system is a
     (A) Hardware (B) Software
     (C) Bioware (D) Virtual ware
350. Object model is a
     (A) Rule (B) Process guidance
     (C) System model (D) Entity
351. Software engineering is an engineering
     discipline concerned with
     (A) Software development
     (B) Software production
     (C) Software implementation
     (D) All the above
352. A workflow model represents
     (A) Sequence of activities
     (B) Role of users involved
     (C) Set of activities
     (D) None of these
353. Sensor component
     (A) Causes changes in system
     environment
     (B) Communicate with other components
     (C) Collects information from system
     environment
     (D) Coordinate the operation of other
     components.
354. Which is the correct order ?
     (A) System development ? system
     installation ? system operation
     (B) System installation ? system operation?
     system development
     (C) System decomposition? system
     installation ? system design
     (D) None of these.
355. Sensor component is a
     (A) Functional component
     (B) Non-functional component
     (C) Reliability component
     (D) None of these
356. Which one is not the non-functional activity ?
     (A) Reliability (B) Performance
     (C) Coordination (D) Maintainability
357. Sub system is
     (A) Dependent system
     (B) Independent system
     (C) Component
     (D) None of these
358. System architecture model identifies
     (A) Hardware components
     (B) Software components
     (C) Virtual components and software
     components
     (D) Hardware and software components
     both
359. Which one is functional component ?
     (A) Reliability (B) Maintainability
     (C) Computation (D) Performance
360. A class room in a school is a
     (A) System (B) Sub-system
     (C) Module (D) None of these
361. Floating point process is a
     (A) Communication component
     (B) Computation component
     (C) Coordination component
     (D) Sensor component
362. Digital-analog converter that converter digital
     input into analog output is a
     (A) Communication component
     (B) Computation component
     (C) Sensor component
     (D) Interface component
363. In software system requirements, the
     functional requirement for the system
     describes
     (A) Services the system is expected to
     provide
     (B) Factors of system development
     (C) Reliability, response time or system
     capacity
     (D) None of these
     86 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
364. In software system requirements, the
     interface requirements are
     (A) Requirements that are derived from the
     interface of existing system
     (B) Requirements that are derived from the
     interface of proposed system
     (C) Requirements that are derived from the
     interface of existing and proposed
     systems
     (D) None of these
365. Validation plan describes
     (A) Quality procedure
     (B) Schedule procedure
     (C) Management procedure
     (D) None of these
366. Software requirement specification is
     (A) The official statement of what is required
     of the system developers
     (B) The non official statement of system
     interface
     (C) Non specified format of system working
     (D) None of these
367. What is Ethnography
     (A) A graphic tool
     (B) Observational technique used to
     understand social and organizational
     requirements
     (C) A graph with nodes
     (D) None of these
368. In Data Processing model
     (A) Here data-flow diagram show, how data
     is processed at different stages in the
     system. These are behavioral models
     (B) It registers all/ selected activities of a
     computer system.
     (C) Technique used to transform raw data
     into a more useful form.
     (D) Data is shifted to modern data base
     management system.
369. In Data recording
     (A) Here data-flow diagram show, how data
     is processed at different stages in the
     system.
     (B) It registers all/ selected activities of a
     computer system.
     (C) Technique used to transform raw data
     into a more useful form.
     (D) Data is shifted to modern data base
     management system.
370. Thermo couple in furnace is a
     (A) Communication component
     (B) Computation component
     (C) Sensor component
     (D) Interface component
371. In block diagrams, relationship between
     components is shown by
     (A) Boxes (B) Ovals
     (C) Circular (D) Lines/Arrows
372. Cities, states and country can be defined as
     (A) Subsystem – Cities, states: System –
     country
     (B) Subsystem – state :System– country,
     cities
     (C) Subsystem – Country: System– cities,
     state
     (D) Subsystem– Country, state: System–
     Cities
373. Which of the following is correct system
     design process ?
     (A) Identify system requirement – define
     system – develop system
     (B) Define system – develop system –
     identify system
     (C) Identify system – develop system –
     operate system
     (D) None of these
374. Making different sub-system to work together
     is
     (A) System definition
     (B) System operation
     (C) System integration
     (D) System decomposition
375. System procurement process involves
     (A) Specifying system requirement
     (B) Choosing suppliers
     (C) A and B both
     (D) None of these
376. System decommissioning normally takes
     place
     (A) At the beginning of the development
     process
     (B) At the middle of the development
     process
     (C) After the end of useful operational time
     (D) At the beginning of the useful
     operational time
377. System operation takes place after
     (A) System specification
     (B) System design
     (C) System installation
     (D) System decomposition
378. Software processes are
     (A) Activities involved in producing software
     system
     (B) Activities involved in selling software
     systems
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 87
     (C) Activities involved in system design
     (D) Activities involved in managing systems
379. Iterative model includes
     (A) Waterfall model
     (B) Sequential model
     (C) Incremental development
     (D) Random model
380. In iterative process model, software process
     represents
     (A) Sequential activities
     (B) Cycle of activities
     (C) Random activities
     (D) None of these
381. In spiral development the software process
     form
     (A) Sequences (B) Loops
     (C) Zigzag (D) None of these
382. Spiral development involves
     (A) Risk assessment
     (B) Reduction of risk
     (C) A and B both
     (D) None of these
383. Requirement Engineering involves
     (A) Feasibility studies
     (B) Requirement analysis
     (C) Requirement validation
     (D) All the above
384. Analysis and design workbench
     (A) It supports system modeling during the
     analysis and design stages of the
     software process
     (B) Organization responsible for approving
     U.S. standards
     (C) Stimuli that occurs irregularly
     (D) Formalized set of software calls and
     routines that can be referenced by an
     application program in order to access
     supporting system or network services
385. ANSI (American National Standards Institute)
     is
     (A) It supports system modeling during the
     analysis and design stages of the
     software process
     (B) Organization responsible for approving
     U.S. standards
     (C) Stimuli that occurs irregularly
     (D) Formalized set of software calls and
     routines that can be referenced by an
     application program in order to access
     supporting system or network services
386. Aperiodic stimuli is
     (A) It supports system modeling during the
     analysis and design stages of the
     software process
     (B) Organization responsible for approving
     U.S. standards
     (C) Stimuli that occurs irregularly
     (D) Formalized set of software calls and
     routines that can be referenced by an
     application program in order to access
     supporting system or network services
387. Which is not the part of software process ?
     (A) Software specification
     (B) Software design
     (C) Software evolution
     (D) Software selling
388. Which one is not the generic process model ?
     (A) Waterfall model
     (B) Evolutionary development
     (C) Re-use oriented development
     (D) Marketing model
389. Spiral model is
     (A) Iterative model
     (B) Non-iterative model
     (C) Random model
     (D) None of these
390. Software design activities involved
     (A) System programming
     (B) System operations
     (C) Component design
     (D) Component development
391. Software implementation converts system
     specifications into
     (A) Development system
     (B) System decomposition
     (C) Executable system
     (D) None of these
392. Which one is not be structured design model ?
     (A) Data flow model
     (B) Entity relation model
     (C) Object-oriented model
     (D) Debugging
393. Software process models are
     (A) Abstract representation of software
     process
     (B) Software running the systems
     (C) Software managing the systems
     (D) Software implementation
394. Debugging is a process of
     (A) Developing faults
     (B) Removing faults
     (C) Ignoring faults
     (D) None of these
     88 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
395. Software validation is
     (A) Checking system conformations to its
     specifications
     (B) Developing system conformations to its
     specifications
     (C) Operating system
     (D) None of these
396. Unit testing process is
     (A) Software designing process
     (B) Software operating process
     (C) Software validation process
     (D) Software decomposition process
397. CASE environment supports
     (A) Individual process tasks
     (B) Individual process phases
     (C) Most process tasks and process
     phases
     (D) None of these
398. CASE work benches support
     (A) Individual process tasks
     (B) Process phases and activities
     (C) Development software
     (D) Operation software
399. Error location and repair is
     (A) System modeling process
     (B) System design process
     (C) System verification process
     (D) System decomposition process
400. Quality plan describes
     (A) Quality procedure and standards
     (B) Approaches, resources and schedules
     (C) Configuration management and
     structure
     (D) None of these
401. Which one is not true for risk analysis ?
     (A) It estimate risks (B) It removes risks
     (C) It reduces risks (D) It develops risks
402. Project schedule can be illustrated in
     (A) Bar-charts (B) Activity-networks
     (C) Figures (D) None of these
403. Change in technology is a
     (A) Technology risk
     (B) People risk
     (C) Tool risk
     (D) Implementation risk
404. Under estimate of cost is
     (A) Technology risk
     (B) People risk
     (C) Estimation risk
     (D) Organizational risk
405. Maintenance plan describes
     (A) Quality procedure
     (B) Schedule procedure
     (C) Maintenance procedure
     (D) Configuration procedure
406. Failure of schedule is
     (A) People risk
     (B) Organizational risk
     (C) Estimation risk
     (D) Requirement risk
407. Risk planning involves
     (A) Avoidance strategies
     (B) Minimization strategies
     (C) Contingency plan
     (D) All the above
408. Which is not the part of scheduling process?
     (A) Creating project chart
     (B) Defining roles/activities
     (C) Estimating failures
     (D) Selling product
409. Use of Email instead of post & telegraph is
     due to
     (A) Technology changes
     (B) Requirement changes
     (C) Users access
     (D) All the above
410. Using P-IV instead of P-I is due to
     (A) Requirement change
     (B) Faster access
     (C) Technology improvement
     (D) All the above
411. The term user requirements
     (A) Are statements, made in natural
     language and diagrams of services that
     system is expected to provide and the
     constrains on the system
     (B) The system services and details, can
     serve as contract between buyer and
     software developers
     (C) An abstract description of software
     design
     (D) None of these
412. Software design specification
     (A) Are statements, made in natural
     language to specify the system
     specification and constraints
     (B) An abstract description of software
     design, which is an extension of system
     requirement specification
     (C) Discusses the market policy of the
     system
     (D) None of these
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 89
413. Software consists of
     (A) Computer program only
     (B) Computer program and associated
     documentations
     (C) Documentation only
     (D) Hardware
414. Software engineering deals with
     (A) Software development
     (B) Hardware development
     (C) System development
     (D) Network development
415. System engineering deals with
     (A) Software development only
     (B) Hardware development only
     (C) Software and Hardware development
     (D) Network development
416. Work flow model includes
     (A) Inputs (B) Out puts
     (C) Dependencies (D) All the above
417. Rules are
     (A) Constraints define for system models
     (B) Input data
     (C) Out put data
     (D) Activities in involved in the system
418. Hardware represents
     (A) Documentations
     (B) Programs
     (C) Computer systems
     (D) Rules
419. The system failure due to power failure is
     considered under
     (A) Hardware reliability
     (B) Software reliability
     (C) Operation reliability
     (D) None of these
420. Components such as wheel, chain, handle
     etc are assembled to produce bicycle. The
     use of bicycle as transportation device is
     considered to be
     (A) Functional property
     (B) Non-functional property
     (C) Software system
     (D) None of these
421. A computer program is a
     (A) Software (B) Hardware
     (C) System (D) None of these
422. Software system consists of
     (A) Programs
     (B) Configuration files
     (C) Documentation
     (D) All of the above
423. User documentation defines
     (A) Computer program
     (B) Computer system
     (C) Use of computer systems
     (D) Structure of computer system
424. System documentation defines
     (A) Computer programs
     (B) Computer systems
     (C) Use of computer systems
     (D) Structure of computer system
425. System engineering is concerned with
     (A) Hardware development
     (B) System development
     (C) Software engineering
     (D) All of the above
426. Software process involves
     (A) Software specification and
     developments
     (B) Software validation and evolution
     (C) A and B both
     (D) None of these
427. Mutable requirements are
     (A) Requirements that change due to the
     environment in which the organization
     is operating
     (B) Emerges due to user’s understanding
     of system
     (C) Dependent on particular system
     (D) None of these
428. Requirement Engineering process does not
     involves
     (A) Feasibility study
     (B) Requirement elicitation and an analysis
     (C) Requirement validation and
     management
     (D) Data processing
429. User requirements are written in
     (A) Natural language
     (B) FORTRAN
     (C) Assembly language
     (D) None of these
430. The system modeling is normally referred
     to
     (A) An abstract viewing of a system
     (B) The system running
     (C) Programming language
     (D) None of these
431. In system modeling : A-Complementary
     system model : B-Context model: C￾Composition model
     (1) Here entity-relation (E-R) diagram show how
     entities in the system are composed of other
     90 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
     entities.2-Shows how the system being
     modeled is positioned, in an environment
     with other systems and process. 3-Present
     different information about the system.
     (A) A-1, B-2, C-3 (B) A-3, B-2, C-1
     (C) A-2, B-3, C-1 (D) A-2, B-1, C-3
432. Operability is
     (A) Extent to which a system or component
     complies with standards
     (B) Trustworthiness of operating the
     software.
     (C) Measures that estimates system cost
     to operate and maintain.
     (D) None of these
433. In system modeling: A-Architectural model:
     B-Stimulus-response model: C-Behavioral
     models::1-Used to describe the overall
     behavior of the system: 2-State transition
     diagram show how the system reacts to
     internal and external events:3-Shows
     principal sub-systems which makes the
     system
     (A) A-1, B-2, C-3 (B) A-2, B-3, C-1
     (C) A-3, B-2, C-1 (D) C-2, B-1, A-3
434. In system modeling : A-Classification model;
     B-Stimulus-response model; C-Data
     processing model: 1-Here data-flow diagram
     show how data is processed at different
     stages; 2-Here object class/inheritance
     diagram show, how entities have the
     common characteristics;3-Here state
     transition diagram shows the how the
     system reader to internal and external events
     (A) A-2, B-3, C-1 (B) A-3, B-1, C-2
     (C) A-1, B-2, C-3 (D) A-1, B-3, C-2
435. In system modeling
     Statement-1: State-machine model is used
     to model the behavior of a system in
     response to internal and external events.
     Statement-2: Stimulus response model
     represents state transition diagram that
     show how system reacts to internal and
     external events.
     (A) Statement-1 and 2 both correct
     (B) Statement-1 and 2 both false
     (C) Statement-1 is true and Statement-2 is
     false
     (D) Statement-1 is false and Statement-2 is
     true
436. Taxonomy is
     (A) Classification scheme, which shows
     who object class is related to other
     class through common attributes and
     services
     (B) Standard modeling language, used for
     object oriented modeling
     (C) Set of tools to support software process
     (D) None of these
437. In system modeling : A-Model;B-Prototype;;1-
     it’s an abstract view of a system that ignores
     system details; 2-It’s an initial version of
     system software which givers end-users a
     concrete impression of the system
     capacities
     (A) A-1, B-2 (B) A-1, B-1
     (C) B-1, A-2 (D) A-2, B-2
438. Sub-systems in a system are
     (A) Independent systems that compro￾mises the system
     (B) Dependent systems that compromises
     the system
     (C) A and B both true
     (D) None of these
439. The following is not true for client-server
     model
     (A) It contains the set of stand alone servers
     (B) A set of clients that can use services
     offered by servers
     (C) A network which allows the clients to
     access these services
     (D) An intersection between clients by
     passing the server
440. Computer Aided Software Engineering
     (CASE) is
     (A) Extent to which all the parts of a software
     system or component are present and
     each of its parts is fully specified and
     developed.
     (B) Testing of individual hardware/software
     components
     (C) An Entity-relation (E-R) diagram show
     how entities in the system are
     composed of other entities
     (D) It consists of wide range of different
     types of computer programs, which be
     used to support software process
     activities such as a requirement
     analysis, system modeling, debugging
     and testing.
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 91
441. A control model, where one system is
     designed as the system controller and has
     responsibility for managing the execution of
     other sub-systems can be referred as
     (A) Centralized control model
     (B) Call-return control model
     (C) Object oriented model
     (D) None of these
442. A sequential control model where control
     starts at the top of a subroutine hierarchy
     and through sub-routine calls, passes to
     lower levels is referred as
     (A) Manager control model
     (B) Call-return control model
     (C) Object oriented model
     (D) None of these
443. A control model where one system
     component is designed as system manager
     which controls the starting, stopping and
     coordination other system processes can
     be referred as
     (A) Manager control model
     (B) Object oriented model
     (C) Event driven control model
     (D) None of these
444. When is a system where each sub-system
     can respond to generated event are referred
     as ?
     (A) Event driven control system
     (B) Object oriented model
     (C) Manager control model
     (D) None of these
445. An event driven control system, when an
     event is transmitted to each sub-system and
     each sub-system that handles that event
     responds to it is referred as
     (A) Broadcast model
     (B) Manager control model
     (C) Call-return control model
     (D) None of these
446. Embedded system
     (A) Run on single processor
     (B) Run on integrated group of process
     linked by network
     (C) Network models
     (D) None of these
447. If all the application processing and data
     management is carried out on the server and
     client is only responsible for running the
     system then this is referred as
     (A) Client-server model
     (B) Thin client server model
     (C) Thick client server model
     (D) None of these
448. If the server is only responsible for data
     management and software on the client
     implements the application logic, then one
     can referrer this model as
     (A) Client server model
     (B) Fat client server model
     (C) Thin client server model
     (D) None of these
449. In system models, object is
     (A) An entity that has a state and defined
     set of operations that operates on that
     state
     (B) Software program
     (C) Programming language, that develops
     any given program
     (D) None of these
450. When the state of object changes by internal
     operations, executing within the object it self,
     then these objects are referred as
     (A) Active object (B) Inactive object
     (C) Silent object (D) None of these
451. The objects that are realized on call as
     parallel process with method corresponding
     to defined object operations can be referred
     as
     (A) Active object (B) Servers
     (C) Modules (D) None of these
452. For real time system following is not true
     (A) Correct functioning of the system
     depends on the result produced by the
     system
     (B) Correct functioning of the system
     depends on the time at which the results
     are produced
     (C) The time of processing affects the
     system output
     (D) The time of processing does not affects
     the system out-put
453. If in a software system, the operation is
     degraded if results are not produced
     according to the specified timing require￾ments then the software system is referred
     as
     (A) Soft real time system
     (B) hard real time system
     (C) Real time system
     (D) None of these
     92 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
454. If in a software system, the operation is
     incorrect if results are not produced accor￾ding to the specified timing requirements
     then the software system is referred as
     (A) Soft real time system
     (B) Hard real time system
     (C) Real time system
     (D) None of these
455. Degree to which a system or component
     performs only the necessary functions
     relevant to a particular purpose
     (A) Abstractness
     (B) Acceptable risk
     (C) Acceptance testing
     (D) None of these
456. Subject to probability of hazard, arising will
     not raise cost factors is referred as
     (A) Abstractness
     (B) Acceptable risk
     (C) Acceptance testing
     (D) None of these
457. Formal testing conducted to determine
     whether a system satisfies its acceptance
     criteria and to enable the customer to
     determine whether to accept the system
     (A) Abstractness
     (B) Acceptable risk
     (C) Acceptance testing
     (D) None of these
458. Truthfulness with which software satisfies
     differing system constraints and user needs
     is
     (A) Active objects (B) Activity
     (C) Adaptability (D) None of these
459. Adaptive measures are
     (A) Quality measures that address how
     easily a system can evolve or migrate
     (B) Piece of software that acts to accomplish
     tasks on behalf of its user
     (C) A quantitative option analysis that allows
     the cost of various options to be compu￾ted, and options can be compared on
     objective basis
     (D) Extent to which a software system or
     component allows for or supports
     anonymous transactions
460. An accident is
     (A) Unplanned events, which results in
     injury, damage to property, or to the
     environment
     (B) Quantitative measure of the magnitude
     of error
     (C) Period that starts when a system is
     considered and ends when the product
     meets its initial operational capability
     (D) All the above
461. An Acquisition cycle time is
     (A) Unplanned events, which results in
     injury, damage to property, or to the
     environment
     (B) Quantitative measure of the magnitude
     of error
     (C) Period that starts when a system is
     considered and ends when the product
     meets its initial operational capability
     (D) All the above
462. An accuracy is
     (A) Unplanned events, which results in
     injury, damage to property, or to the
     environment
     (B) Quantitative measure of the magnitude
     of error
     (C) Period that starts when a system is
     considered and ends when the product
     meets its initial operational capability
     (D) All the above
463. Here the state of the object changes by
     internal operations executing within the
     object itself. And also object continually
     executes and operations never suspend
     itself is referred as
     (A) Active objects (B) Activity
     (C) Adaptability (D) None of these
464. A clearly defined objective, entry and exit
     conditions which is normally is atomic is
     referred as
     (A) Active objects (B) Activity
     (C) Adaptability (D) None of these
465. Agents are
     (A) Quality measures that address how
     easily a system can evolve or migrate
     (B) Piece of software that acts to accomplish
     tasks on behalf of its user
     (C) A quantitative option analysis that allows
     the cost of various options to be compu￾ted, and options can be compared on
     objective basis
     (D) Extent to which a software system or
     component allows for or supports
     anonymous transactions
466. Anonymity is
     (A) Quality measures that address how
     easily a system can evolve or migrate
     (B) Piece of software that acts to accomplish
     tasks on behalf of its user
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 93
     (C) A quantitative option analysis that allows
     the cost of various options to be compu￾ted, and options can be compared on
     objective basis
     (D) Extent to which a software system or
     component allows for or supports
     anonymous transactions
467. Algorithmic cost modeling is
     (A) Quality measures that address how
     easily a system can evolve or migrate
     (B) Piece of software that acts to accomplish
     tasks on behalf of its user
     (C) A quantitative option analysis that allows
     the cost of various options to be
     computed, and options can be
     compared on objective basis
     (D) Extent to which a software system or
     component allows for or supports
     anonymous transactions
468. Application program interface is
     (A) It supports system modeling during the
     analysis and design stages of the
     software process
     (B) Organization responsible for approving
     U.S. standards
     (C) Stimuli that occurs irregularly
     (D) Formalized set of software calls and
     routines that can be referenced by an
     application program in order to access
     supporting system or network services*
469. Method of defining a collection of hardware
     and software components and their
     interfaces to establish the framework for the
     development of a computer system
     (A) As low as reasonably practical (ALARP)
     risk
     (B) Architectural design
     (C) Attack
     (D) None of these
470. Probability of an accident arising because
     of hazard is minimum subject of other costs
     (A) As low as reasonably practical (ALARP)
     risk
     (B) Architectural design
     (C) Attack
     (D) None of these
471. Fault tolerance system are
     (A) These system runs on a single proce￾ssor or an integrated group of processors
     (B) A system where each sub-system can
     respond to generated events where the
     events might be generated from other
     sub-systems or from the environment
     of the system.
     (C) A system continues in operation after
     some system faults have manifested
     themselves.
     (D) A system whose operation is incorrect,
     if results are not produced according to
     the timing specifications
472. The misuse of system vulnerability is
     (A) As low as reasonably practical (ALARP)
     risk
     (B) Architectural design
     (C) Attack
     (D) None of these
473. Attribute-based identification is
     (A) Here each component has a unique
     name and an associated set of attribute,
     which differs for each version of
     component
     (B) Extent to which a software system
     records information concerning
     transactions performed against the
     system.
     (C) Extent to which a system or component
     is operational and accessible when
     required for use
     (D) They are used to describe the over all
     behavior of the system.
474. Auditable is
     (A) Here each component has a unique
     name and an associated set of attribute,
     which differs for each version of
     component
     (B) Extent to which a software system records
     information concerning transactions
     performed against the system
     (C) Extent to which a system or component
     is operational and accessible when
     required for use
     (D) They are used to describe the over all
     behavior of the system
475. Availability is
     (A) Here each component has a unique
     name and an associated set of attribute,
     which differs for each version of
     component
     (B) Extent to which a software system
     records information concerning transac￾tions performed against the system.
     (C) Extent to which a system or component
     is operational and accessible when
     required for use
     (D) They are used to describe the over all
     behavior of the system.
     94 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
476. Behavioral models is
     (A) Here each component has a unique
     name and an associated set of attribute,
     which differs for each version of
     component
     (B) Extent to which a software system
     records information concerning transac￾tions performed against the system.
     (C) Extent to which a system or component
     is operational and accessible when
     required for use
     (D) Used to describe the over all behavior
     of the system
477. In Bottom-up integration
     (A) The low-level components of a system
     are integrated and tested before the
     higher-level components have been
     developed
     (B) The testing process starts with modules
     at lower levels in the hierarchy and
     works up the hierarchy of modules until
     the final module is tested.
     (C) An event driven control system, where
     an event is broadcasted to each sub￾system and any sub-system that can
     handle that event responds to it.
     (D) Control starts of the top of a sub routine
     hierarchy and through sub routine calls
     passes to lower levels.
478. In Broadcast models
     (A) The low-level components of a system
     are integrated and tested before the
     higher-level components have been
     developed.
     (B) The testing process starts with modules
     at lower levels in the hierarchy and
     works up the hierarchy of modules until
     the final module is tested
     (C) An event driven control system, where
     an event is broadcasted to each sub￾system and any sub-system that can
     handle that event responds to it.
     (D) Control starts of the top of a sub routine
     hierarchy and through sub routine calls
     passes to lower levels.
479. Bottom-up testing
     (A) The low-level components of a system
     are integrated and tested before the
     higher-level components have been
     developed.
     (B) The testing process starts with modules
     at lower levels in the hierarchy and
     works up the hierarchy of modules until
     the final module is tested.
     (C) An event driven control system, where
     an event is broadcasted to each sub￾system and any sub-system that can
     handle that event responds to it.
     (D) Control starts of the top of a sub routine
     hierarchy and through sub routine calls
     passes to lower levels.
480. In Call-return control model
     (A) The low-level components of a system
     are integrated and tested before the
     higher-level components have been
     developed.
     (B) The testing process starts with modules
     at lower levels in the hierarchy and
     works up the hierarchy of modules until
     the final module is tested.
     (C) An event driven control system, where
     an event is broadcasted to each sub￾system and any sub-system that can
     handle that event responds to it.
     (D) Control starts of the top of a sub routine
     hierarchy and through sub routine calls
     passes to lower levels
481. Capacity is
     (A) A measure of the amount of work a
     system can perform
     (B) It provides automated support for
     software process.
     (C) Support individual process tasks
     (D) Set of tools to support a particular
     phase of software process such as
     design, implementation or testing.
482. CASE (Computer Aided Software
     Engineering) is
     (A) A measure of the amount of work a
     system can perform
     (B) It provides automated support for
     software process.
     (C) Support individual process tasks
     (D) Set of tools to support a particular
     phase of software process such as
     design, implementation or testing:
483. CASE Tools
     (A) A measure of the amount of work a
     system can perform
     (B) It provides automated support for
     software process.
     (C) Support individual process tasks
     (D) Set of tools to support a particular
     phase of software process such as
     design, implementation or testing
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 95
484. CASE Workbench
     (A) A measure of the amount of work a
     system can perform
     (B) It provides automated support for
     software process.
     (C) Support individual process tasks
     (D) Set of tools to support a particular phase
     of software process such as design,
     implementation or testing
485. Centralized control models
     (A) Here one system is designed as the
     system controller and has responsibility
     for managing the execution of other
     subsystems.
     (B) Each system is named as in attribute￾based identification and associated with
     one or more change requests.
     (C) An object class inheritance diagram,
     how entities have common
     characteristics.
     (D) The objective of this software
     development is zero-defect software.
486. Change-oriented identification
     (A) One system is designed as the system
     controller and has responsibility for
     managing the execution of other
     subsystems.
     (B) Each system is named as in attribute￾based identification and associated with
     one or more change requests.
     (C) An object class inheritance diagram,
     how entities have common
     characteristics.
     (D) The objective of this software
     development is zero-defect software.
487. Hard real time systems are
     (A) These system runs on a single
     processor or an integrated group of
     processors
     (B) A system where each sub-system can
     respond to generated events where the
     events might be generated from other
     sub-systems or from the environment
     of the system.
     (C) A system continues in operation after
     some system faults have manifested
     themselves.
     (D) A system whose operation is incorrect,
     if results are not produced according to
     the timing specifications
488. Classification model
     (A) One system is designed as the system
     controller and has responsibility for
     managing the execution of other
     subsystems.
     (B) Each system is named as in attribute￾based identification and associated with
     one or more change requests.
     (C) An object class inheritance diagram, how
     entities have common characteristics.
     (D) The objective of this software develop￾ment is zero-defect software.
489. Clean room software development
     (A) One system is designed as the system
     controller and has responsibility for
     managing the execution of other
     subsystems.
     (B) Each system is named as in attribute￾based identification and associated with
     one or more change requests.
     (C) An object class inheritance diagram,
     how entities have common
     characteristics.
     (D) The objective is to develop zero-defect
     software.
490. COCOMO cost model
     (A) It takes project, product hardware and
     personnel attributes into account when
     formulating a cost estimate.
     (B) In it server provides set of services and
     set of clients uses these services.
     (C) Extent to which standards are used to
     achieve interoperability.
     (D) None of these
491. Client server architecture
     (A) It takes project, product hardware and
     personnel attributes into account when
     formulating a cost estimate.
     (B) In it server provides set of services and
     set of clients uses these services.
     (C) Extent to which standards are used to
     achieve interoperability.
     (D) None of these
492. Commonality
     (A) It takes project, product hardware and
     personnel attributes into account when
     formulating a cost estimate.
     (B) In it server provides set of services and
     set of clients uses these services.
     (C) Extent to which standards are used to
     achieve interoperability
     (D) None of these
     96 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
493. Transforming of logic and data from design
     specifications (design descriptions) into a
     programming language
     (A) Compatibility (B) Compactness
     (C) Coding (D) Communication
494. An inter change of information between
     computer systems and peoples or between
     people.
     (A) Compatibility (B) Compactness
     (C) Coding (D) Communication
495. Extent to which a system or component
     makes efficient use of its data storage
     space- occupies a small volume.
     (A) Compatibility (B) Compactness
     (C) Code (D) Communication
496. Entity-relation model is
     (A) It describes the basic entities in the
     design and relation between them.
     (B) Observational techniques used to
     understand social and organizational
     requirements.
     (C) It is based on the idea of developing an
     initial implementation, exposing it uses
     on requirement and refining it through
     many versions until an adequate system
     has been developed.
     (D) Based on an idea of developing an initial
     implementation, exposing this to uses
     comment and retiring it until and
     adequate system has been developed.
497. Ability of two or more systems or components
     to perform their required functions while
     sharing the same hardware or software
     environment
     (A) Compatibility (B) Compactness
     (C) Code (D) Communication
498. Completeness in software system is
     referred as
     (A) Extent to which all the parts of a software
     system or component are present and
     each of its parts is fully specified and
     developed.
     (B) Testing of individual hardware/software
     components
     (C) An Entity-relation (E-R) diagram show
     how entities in the system are
     composed of other entities.
     (D) It consists of wide range of different
     types of computer programs, which be
     used to support software process
     activities such as a requirement
     analysis, system modeling, debugging
     and testing.
499. Composition model is
     (A) Extent to which all the parts of a software
     system or component are present and
     each of its parts is fully specified and
     developed.
     (B) Testing of individual hardware/software
     components
     (C) An Entity-relation (E-R) diagram show
     how entities in the system are
     composed of other entities
     (D) It consists of wide range of different
     types of computer programs, which be
     used to support software process
     activities such as a requirement
     analysis, system modeling, debugging
     and testing.
500. Match the following : A-Control metrics : B￾Process metrics: C- Control: D-Correctness:
     1- They are associated with software
     process. 2- They are associated with
     software products. 3- Protective measure
     that reduces system vulnerability. 4- Extent
     to which a system or component is free from
     faults in its specification, design, and
     implementation
     (A) A-1, B-2,C-3,D-4 (B) A-4,B-3,C-2,D-1
     (C) A-3, B-2,C-1,D-4 (D) None is true
501. Corrective maintenance is
     (A) Maintenance performed to correct faults
     in hardware or software
     (B) A failure of software-controlled systems
     in convenience, but there are source
     systems where system failure is
     resulted in significant critical losses.
     (C) Failure that corrupts system state or data
     (D) None is true
502. Corrupting failure is
     (A) Maintenance performed to correct faults
     in hardware or software
     (B) A failure of software-controlled systems
     in convenience, but there are source
     systems where system failure is
     resulted in significant critical losses.
     (C) Failure that corrupts system state or data
     (D) None is true
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 97
503. Cost estimation is
     (A) Process of estimating the costs
     associated with software development
     projects that include the effort, time, and
     labor required.
     (B) Overall cost of maintaining a computer
     system that includes the costs
     associated with personnel/training/
     maintenance of hardware and software/
     requirements growth.
     (C) Overall cost of operating a computer
     system that includes the costs
     associated with personnel / training /
     system operations.
     (D) Overall cost of a computer system to an
     organization that includes the costs
     associated with operating/ maintaining
     the system, and the lifetime of
     operational use of the system.
504. Cost of ownership is
     (A) Process of estimating the costs
     associated with software development
     projects that include the effort, time, and
     labor required.
     (B) Overall cost of maintaining a computer
     system that includes the costs
     associated with personnel/training/
     maintenance of hardware and software/
     requirements growth.
     (C) Overall cost of operating a computer
     system that includes the costs
     associated with personnel / training /
     system operations.
     (D) Overall cost of a computer system to an
     organization that includes the costs
     associated with operating/ maintaining
     the system, and the lifetime of
     operational use of the system.
505. Cost of maintenance
     (A) Process of estimating the costs
     associated with software development
     projects that include the effort, time, and
     labor required.
     (B) Overall cost of maintaining a computer
     system that includes the costs
     associated with personnel/training/
     maintenance of hardware and software/
     requirements growth.
     (C) Overall cost of operating a computer
     system that includes the costs
     associated with personnel / training /
     system operations.
     (D) Overall cost of a computer system to an
     organization that includes the costs
     associated with operating/ maintaining
     the system, and the lifetime of
     operational use of the system.
506. Event-driven control systems are
     (A) These system runs on a single proce￾ssor or an integrated group of processors
     (B) A system where each sub-system can
     respond to generated events where the
     events might be generated from other
     sub-systems or from the environment
     of the system.
     (C) A system continues in operation after
     some system faults have manifested
     themselves.
     (D) A system whose operation is incorrect,
     if results are not produced according to
     the timing specifications
507. Cost of operation is
     (A) Process of estimating the costs
     associated with software development
     projects that include the effort, time, and
     labor required.
     (B) Overall cost of maintaining a computer
     system that includes the costs
     associated with personnel / training/
     maintenance of hardware and software/
     requirements growth.
     (C) Overall cost of operating a computer
     system that includes the costs
     associated with personnel / training /
     system operations.
     (D) Overall cost of a computer system to an
     organization that includes the costs
     associated with operating/ maintaining
     the system, and the lifetime of
     operational use of the system.
508. In Data reduction
     (A) Here data-flow diagram show, how data
     is processed at different stages in the
     system.
     (B) It registers all/ selected activities of a
     computer system.
     (C) Technique used to transform raw data
     into a more useful form.
     (D) Data is shifted to modern data base
     management system.
509. Ethnography is
     (A) It describes the basic entities in the
     design and relation between them.
     (B) Observational techniques used to
     understand social and organizational
     requirements.
     (C) It is based on the idea of developing an
     initial implementation, exposing it uses
     on requirement and refining it through
     many versions until an adequate system
     has been developed.
     (D) Based on an idea of developing an initial
     implementation, exposing this to uses
     comment and retiring it until and
     adequate system has been developed.
     98 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
510. In Data migration
     (A) Here data-flow diagram show, how data
     is processed at different stages in the
     system.
     (B) It registers all/ selected activities of a
     computer system.
     (C) Technique used to transform raw data
     into a more useful form
     (D) Data is shifted to modern data base
     management system
511. In Data flow (Activity model)
     (A) It shows the software process as a set
     of activities each of which carries out
     data transformation.
     (B) Data and associated programs are re￾engineered to remove limits on the data
     processing.
     (C) It is responsible for the definition,
     operation, protection, performance, and
     recovery of a database.
     (D) Development of a database to meet a
     user’s requirements.
512. In Data tension
     (A) It shows the software process as a set
     of activities each of which carries out
     data transformation.
     (B) Data and associated programs are re￾engineered to remove limits on the data
     processing
     (C) It is responsible for the definition,
     operation, protection, performance, and
     recovery of a database.
     (D) Development of a database to meet a
     user’s requirements
513. Database administration
     (A) It shows the software process as a set
     of activities each of which carries out
     data transformation.
     (B) Data and associated programs are re￾engineered to remove limits on the data
     processing.
     (C) It is responsible for the definition,
     operation, protection, performance, and
     recovery of a database.
     (D) Development of a database to meet a
     user’s requirements
514. Database design
     (A) This model shows the software process
     as a set of activities each of which carries
     out data transformation.
     (B) Data and associated programs are re￾engineered to remove limits on the data
     processing.
     (C) It is responsible for the definition,
     operation, protection, performance, and
     recovery of a database.
     (D) Development of a database to meet a
     user’s requirements
515. Exploratory development is
     (A) Trustworthiness with which a system or
     component can be modified to take
     advantage of new software or hardware
     technologies.
     (B) An error of some kind or an unexpected
     event occurs during the execution of a
     program
     (C) Here the objective of the process is to
     work with uses to explore their
     requirement and deliver a final system.
     (D) Possible loss or harm in computing
     system.
516. Collection of logically related data stored
     together in one or more computerized files.
     (A) Database
     (B) Debugging
     (C) Defect testing
     (D) Defensive programming
517. Exception is
     (A) Trustworthiness with which a system or
     component can be modified to take
     advantage of new software or hardware
     technologies.
     (B) An error of some kind or an unexpected
     event occurs during the execution of a
     program
     (C) Here the objective of the process is to
     work with uses to explore their
     requirement and deliver a final system.
     (D) Possible loss or harm in computing
     system.
518. When the program is developed, it is to be
     tested and defects are to be removed from
     the program.
     (A) Database
     (B) Debugging
     (C) Defect testing
     (D) Defensive programming
519. Evolutionary Development
     (A) It describes the basic entities in the
     design and relation between them.
     (B) Observational techniques used to
     understand social and organizational
     requirements.
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 99
     (C) It is based on the idea of developing an
     initial implementation, exposing it uses
     on requirement and refining it through
     many versions until an adequate system
     has been developed
     (D) Based on an idea of developing an initial
     implementation, exposing this to uses
     comment and retiring it until and
     adequate system has been developed.
520. Exposure is
     (A) Trustworthiness with which a system or
     component can be modified to take
     advantage of new software or hardware
     technologies.
     (B) An error of some kind or an unexpected
     event occurs during the execution of a
     program
     (C) Here the objective of the process is to
     work with uses to explore their
     requirement and deliver a final system.
     (D) Possible loss or harm in computing
     system.
521. Fault tolerance is
     (A) It is the process of modifying the state
     space of the system so that the effects
     of the fault are minimized and system
     can continue in operation in some
     degraded state.
     (B) Capacity of a system or component to
     continue normal operation despite the
     presence of hardware or software faults.
     (C) It is the widely used hazard technique
     (D) Incorrect step, process, or data
     definition in a computer program
522. It is intended to find inconsistencies between
     a program and its specification. These
     inconsistencies are usually due to program
     faults or defects.
     (A) Database
     (B) Debugging
     (C) Defect testing
     (D) Defensive programming
523. It is a property of the system that equates to
     its trustworthiness. It is the degree of user’s
     confidence that the system will operate as
     one expect, that the system would not fail in
     normal use.
     (A) Dependability (B) Availability
     (C) Maintainability (D) None of these
524. Fail safe is
     (A) Trustworthiness with which a system or
     component can be modified to increase
     its storage or functional capacity
     (B) Pertaining to a system/component that
     automatically places itself in a safe
     operating mode in the event of a failure.
     (C) Pertaining to a system or component
     that continues to provide partial
     operational capability in the event of
     certain failures.
     (D) None of these
525. Represents the number of discrete levers in
     the inheritance tree where subclasses
     inherit attributes and operations from super
     classes.
     (A) Depth of inheritance tree
     (B) Breath of inheritance tree
     (C) Radius of inheritance tree
     (D) None of these
526. Fan- out is referred to
     (A) It is a measure of number of function
     that calls some other function.
     (B) It is measure of number of functions that
     are called by a function.
     (C) In it server is only responsible for data
     management.
     (D) None of these
527. Fail soft is
     (A) Trustworthiness with which a system or
     component can be modified to increase
     its storage or functional capacity
     (B) Pertaining to a system/component that
     automatically places itself in a safe
     operating mode in the event of a failure.
     (C) Pertaining to a system or component
     that continues to provide partial
     operational capability in the event of
     certain failures
     (D) None of these
528. Embedded systems are
     (A) These system runs on a single
     processor or an integrated group of
     processors
     (B) A system where each sub-system can
     respond to generated events where the
     events might be generated from other
     sub-systems or from the environment
     of the system.
     (C) A system continues in operation after
     some system faults have manifested
     themselves.
     (D) A system whose operation is incorrect,
     if results are not produced according to
     the timing specifications
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529. Fault is
     (A) It is the process of modifying the state
     space of the system so that the effects
     of the fault are minimized and system
     can continue in operation in some
     degraded state.
     (B) Capacity of a system or component to
     continue normal operation despite the
     presence of hardware or software faults.
     (C) It is the widely used hazard technique
     (D) Incorrect step, process, or data
     definition in a computer program
530. Emergent requirements
     (A) Emerges due to user’s understanding
     of system develops, during system
     development
     (B) Requirements derived from the core
     activity of the organization and directly
     related to the domain of the system.
     (C) Extent to which a system allowed the
     user to intentionally or unintentionally
     introduce errors into or misuse the
     system.
     (D) None of these.
531. Fat-client model is
     (A) It is a measure of number of function
     that calls some other function.
     (B) It is measure of number of functions that
     are called by a function.
     (C) In it server is only responsible for data
     management.
     (D) None of these
532. Fault recovery is
     (A) It is the process of modifying the state
     space of the system so that the effects
     of the fault are minimized and system
     can continue in operation in some
     degraded state
     (B) Capacity of a system or component to
     continue normal operation despite the
     presence of hardware or software faults.
     (C) It is the widely used hazard technique
     (D) Incorrect step, process, or data
     definition in a computer program
533. Enduring requirements
     (A) Emerges due to user’s understanding
     of system develops, during system
     development
     (B) Requirements derived from the core
     activity of the organization and directly
     related to the domain of the system*
     (C) Extent to which a system allowed the
     user to intentionally or unintentionally
     introduce errors into or misuse the
     system.
     (D) None of these.
534. Match the following : A- Error handling : B￾Error proneness: C- Error tolerance:: 1-
     Extent to which a system or component to
     continue normal operation despite the
     presence of erroneous inputs.: 2- Extent to
     which a system allowed the user, to
     intentionally or unintentionally introduce
     errors into or misuse the system.: 3- Function
     of a computer system/ component that
     identify and respond to user or system errors
     to maintain normal or at the very least
     degraded operations.
     (A) A-3,B-2,C-1 (B) A-1,B-2,C-3
     (C) A-2,B-1,C-3 (D) None of these
535. Hazard avoidance
     (A) Hazard cannot arise due system design.
     (B) The probability of the event occurring
     which create a hazard.
     (C) An assessment of the worst possible
     damage, which could result from a
     particular hazard.
     (D) A condition with the potential for causing
     or contributing to an accident.
536. Evolutionary prototyping is
     (A) It describes the basic entities in the
     design and relation between them.
     (B) Observational techniques used to
     understand social and organizational
     requirements.
     (C) It is based on the idea of developing an
     initial implementation, exposing it uses
     on requirement and refining it through
     many versions until an adequate system
     has been developed.
     (D) Based on an idea of developing an initial
     implementation, exposing this to uses
     comment and retiring it until and
     adequate system has been developed.
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 101
537. Match the following : A- Managed device : B￾Managed object: C- Managed processes: 1-
     Type of node residing on a network, such as
     a computer, printer or routers that contain a
     management agent. 2- Characteristic of a
     managed device that can be monitored,
     modified or controlled. 3- It is a defined
     process model. Procedures used are
     defined and scheduling and relationship
     between them is defined.
     (A) A-1, B-3,C-2 (B) A-1,B-2,C-3
     (C) A-2,B-3,C-1 (D) A-3,B-2,C-1
538. Goal is
     (A) Extent to which a system or component
     performs a broad range of functions.
     (B) The objective of an organization to
     achieve.
     (C) Methods and techniques for converting
     data to or from graphic display via
     computers.
     (D) None of these
539. Implementation phase is
     (A) Period in the software life cycle in which
     a software product is created from
     design documentation and debugged.*
     (B) Period in the software life cycle in which
     a software product is integrated in its
     operational environment, and tested in
     this environment to ensure it performs
     as required.
     (C) Period in the software life cycle during
     which the basic version of a software
     product is adapted to a specified set of
     operational environments and is
     distributed to a customer base.
     (D) None of these
540. Evolvability is
     (A) Trustworthiness with which a system or
     component can be modified to take
     advantage of new software or hardware
     technologies.
     (B) An error of some kind or an unexpected
     event occurs during the execution of a
     program
     (C) Here the objective of the process is to
     work with uses to explore their
     requirement and deliver a final system.
     (D) Possible loss or harm in computing
     system.
541. Match the following A- Functional
     requirements: B- Functional scope : C￾Function-point count: D- Function-related
     measures: 1- It describe the functionality or
     services that system is expected to provide.
     2- Range to which a system component is
     capable of being applied. 3- These are
     language independent productive measure..
     4- It is related to the overall functionality of
     the delivered software.
     (A) A-4,B-2,C-3,D-1 (B) A-2,B-1,C-3,D-4
     (C) A-1,B-3,C-2,D-4 (D) A-1,B-2,C-3,D-4
542. Lehman’s Second Law (Lehman and
     Belady 1985) is
     (A) Continuing change: A program used in
     real-world environment must change
     necessarily or become progressively
     less useful in that environment.
     (B) Increase complexity: As an evolving
     program change, its strictures tend to
     become more complex. Extra resources
     must be devoted to preserving and
     simplifying the structure.
     (C) Large program evolution: Program
     evolution is a self-regulating process.
     (D) None of these
543. Hazard probability
     (A) Hazard cannot arise due system design.
     (B) The probability of the event occurring
     which create a hazard.
     (C) An assessment of the worst possible
     damage, which could result from a
     particular hazard.
     (D) A condition with the potential for causing
     or contributing to an accident.
544. Flexibility
     (A) The software and hardware system
     architectures that provide explicit
     support for tolerance, which includes
     software redundancy and fault￾tolerance controller that detects
     problems and supports fault recovery
     (B) It is an initial step for requirements
     engineering process, includes the
     outline description of system, its use in
     an organization and recommending the
     system feasibility.
     (C) Trustworthiness with which a system or
     component can be modified for use in
     applications or environments other than
     those for which it was specifically
     designed.
     (D) None of these
     102 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
545. Extendibility is
     (A) Trustworthiness with which a system or
     component can be modified to increase
     its storage or functional capacity
     (B) Pertaining to a system/component that
     automatically places itself in a safe
     operating mode in the event of a failure.
     (C) Pertaining to a system or component
     that continues to provide partial
     operational capability in the event of
     certain failures.
     (D) None of these
546. Generality is
     (A) Extent to which a system or component
     performs a broad range of functions.
     (B) The objective of an organization to
     achieve.
     (C) Methods and techniques for converting
     data to or from graphic display via
     computers.
     (D) None of these
547. Feasibility studies
     (A) The software and hardware system
     architectures that provide explicit
     support for tolerance, which includes
     software redundancy and fault￾tolerance controller that detects
     problems and supports fault recovery
     (B) It is an initial step for requirements
     engineering process, includes the
     outline description of system, its use in
     an organization and recommending the
     system feasibility.
     (C) Trustworthiness with which a system or
     component can be modified for use in
     applications or environments other than
     those for which it was specifically
     designed.
     (D) None of these
548. Fan-in is referred to
     (A) It is a measure of number of function
     that calls some other function.
     (B) It is measure of number of functions,
     which are called by a function.
     (C) In it server is only responsible for data
     management.
     (D) None of these
549. Manufacturing phase is
     (A) Period in the software life cycle in which
     a software product is created from
     design documentation and debugged.
     (B) Period in the software life cycle in which
     a software product is integrated in its
     operational environment, and tested in
     this environment to ensure it performs
     as required.
     (C) Period in the software life cycle during
     which the basic version of a software
     product is adapted to a specified set of
     operational environments and is
     distributed to a customer base.
     (D) None of these
550. Human engineering is
     (A) It is concerned with the design,
     evaluation, and implementation of
     interactive computing systems for
     human use and with the study of major
     phenomena surrounding them.
     (B) Extent to which a software product fulfills
     its purpose without wasting user’s time/
     energy/degrading their morale.
     (C) Human behavior that results in the
     introduction of faults into a system.
     (D) None of these
551. Hazard severity
     (A) Hazard cannot arise due system design.
     (B) The probability of the event occurring
     which create a hazard.
     (C) An assessment of the worst possible
     damage, which could result from a
     particular hazard.
     (D) A condition with the potential for causing
     or contributing to an accident.
552. Latency is
     (A) Ability of two or more systems, to
     exchange information and to use the
     information that has been exchanged.
     (B) Time taken to respond to an event.
     (C) Either the hazard not arises, if arise; it
     will not result in an accident.
     (D) None of these
553. Fault tree analysis is
     (A) It is the process of modifying the state
     space of the system so that the effects
     of the fault are minimized and system
     can continue in operation in some
     degraded state.
     (B) Capacity of a system or component to
     continue normal operation despite the
     presence of hardware or software faults.
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 103
     (C) It is the widely used hazard technique
     (D) Incorrect step, process, or data
     definition in a computer program
554. Lehman’s Fourth Law (Lehman and Belady
     1985) is
     (A) Organizational stability: Over a
     program’s lifetime, its rate of
     development is approximately constant
     and independent of the resources
     devoted to system development.
     (B) Increase complexity: As an evolving
     program change, its strictures tend to
     become more complex. Extra resources
     must be devoted to preserving and
     simplifying the structure.
     (C) Large program evolution: Program
     evolution is a self-regulating process.
     (D) None of these
555. Human error is
     (A) It is concerned with the design,
     evaluation, and implementation of
     interactive computing systems for
     human use and with the study of major
     phenomena surrounding them.
     (B) Extent to which a software product fulfills
     its purpose without wasting user’s time/
     energy/degrading their morale.
     (C) Human behavior that results in the
     introduction of faults into a system.
     (D) None of these
556. Fault-tolerant architectures is
     (A) The software and hardware system
     architectures that provide explicit
     support for tolerance, which includes
     software redundancy and fault￾tolerance controller that detects
     problems and supports fault recovery*
     (B) It is an initial step for requirements
     engineering process, includes the
     outline description of system, its use in
     an organization and recommending the
     system feasibility.
     (C) Trustworthiness with which a system or
     component can be modified for use in
     applications or environments other than
     those for which it was specifically
     designed.
     (D) None of these
557. Match the following: A- Formal mathematical
     transformation: B- Formal process model:
     C-Formal Specifications: D-Formal System
     development: 1- Here the formal mathema￾tical representation of the system takes
     place. 2- It is a starting point for process
     analysis. It is abstract and only defines the
     principal process activities and deliverables.
     3-Specifications expressed in a language
     whose vocabulary, syntax and semantics are
     formally defined. 4-It is more common to
     waterfall model, but here the development
     process is based on formal mathematical
     transformation of a system specification to
     an exactable program.
     (A) A-1,B-2,C-3,D-4
     (B) A-4,B-2,C-3,D-1
     (C) A-2,B-1,C-3,D-4
     (D) A-1,B-3,C-2,D-4
558. Lehman’s First Law (Lehman and Belady
     1985) is
     (A) Continuing change: A program used in
     real-world environment must change
     necessarily or become progressively
     less useful in that environment.
     (B) Increase complexity: As an evolving
     program change, its strictures tend to
     become more complex. Extra resources
     must be devoted to preserving and
     simplifying the structure.
     (C) Large program evolution: Program
     evolution is a self-regulating process.
     (D) None of these
559. Graphics
     (A) Extent to which a system or component
     performs a broad range of functions.
     (B) The objective of an organization to
     achieve.
     (C) Methods and techniques for converting
     data to or from graphic display via
     computers.
     (D) None of these
560. Intolerable risk is
     (A) Ability of two or more systems, to
     exchange information and to use the
     information that has been exchanged.
     (B) Time taken to respond to an event.
     (C) Either the hazard not arises, if arise; it
     will not result in an accident.
     (D) None of these
561. Hazard
     (A) Hazard cannot arise due system design.
     (B) The probability of the event occurring
     which create a hazard.
     (C) An assessment of the worst possible
     damage, which could result from a
     particular hazard.
     (D) A condition with the potential for causing
     or contributing to an accident.
     104 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
562. Human Computer Interaction is
     (A) It is concerned with the design,
     evaluation, and implementation of
     interactive computing systems for
     human use and with the study of major
     phenomena surrounding them.
     (B) Extent to which a software product fulfills
     its purpose without wasting user’s time/
     energy/degrading their morale.
     (C) Human behavior that results in the
     introduction of faults into a system.
     (D) None of these
563. Match the following : A- Maintenance control:
     B- Maintenance prediction: C- Maintenance
     process: 1-Cost of planning and scheduling
     hardware preventive maintenance, and
     software maintenance and upgrades,
     managing the hardware and software
     baselines, and providing response for
     hardware corrective maintenance. 2-
     Predicting the number of change requires a
     system understanding and the relationship
     between the system and external
     environment. 3- It is triggered by a set of
     change requests from system users,
     management or customers.
     (A) A-1, B-3,C-2 (B) A-1,B-2,C-3
     (C) A-2,B-3,C-1 (D) A-3,B-2,C-1
564. Installation and checkout phase
     (A) Period in the software life cycle in which
     a software product is created from
     design documentation and debugged.
     (B) Period in the software life cycle in which
     a software product is integrated in its
     operational environment, and tested in
     this environment to ensure it performs
     as required.
     (C) Period in the software life cycle during
     which the basic version of a software
     product is adapted to a specified set of
     operational environments and is
     distributed to a customer base.
     (D) None of these
565. A- Interface requirement: B-Interface testing:
     C-Interfaces design: 1- Requirements
     derived from the interfaces of existing system
     and developing system. 2- It detects faults
     that have been arise in the system because
     of interface errors or invalid assumptions
     about interface. 3-Activity concerned with the
     interfaces of the software system contained
     in the software requirements and software
     interface requirements documentation.
     (A) A-1,B-2,C-3 (B) A-2,B-1,C-3
     (C) A-2,B-3,C-1 (D) A-3,B-2,C-1
566. Software implementation is
     (A) It is concern with modification of existing
     system to meet changing requirements.
     (B) It is a process of converting system
     specifications into an executable
     system.
     (C) It analyzes and checks system
     representation such as the
     requirements document, design
     diagrams and program source code.
     (D) None of these
567. An object-oriented model of system
     architecture structures the system into a set
     of loosely coupled objects with well-defined
     interfaces.
     (A) Object design models
     (B) Object interface design
     (C) Object oriented models
     (D) None of these
568. Interoperability is
     (A) Ability of two or more systems, to
     exchange information and to use the
     information that has been exchanged.
     (B) Time taken to respond to an event.
     (C) Either the hazard not arises, if arise; it
     will not result in an accident.
     (D) None of these
569. Parkinson’s Law is
     (A) The cost is determined by available
     resources rather than by objective
     assessment.
     (B) A program used in real-world
     environment must change necessarily
     or become progressively less useful in
     that environment.
     (C) As an evolving program change, its
     strictures tend to become more complex.
     (D) Program evolution is a self-regulating
     process.
570. An object-oriented model of system
     architecture structures the system into a set
     of loosely coupled objects with well-defined
     interfaces.
     (A) Object design models
     (B) Object interface design
     (C) Object oriented models
     (D) None of these
571. Retirement phase is
     (A) Reason for a computer program to
     resume execution after a failure, using
     status and results recorded at a
     checkpoint.
     (B) Period of time in the software life cycle
     during which support for a software
     product is terminated.
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 105
     (C) The fault detection mechanism is
     initiated after the system state has been
     changed to check if a fault has occurred.
     (D) None of these
572. Retrospective Fault detection is
     (A) Reason for a computer program to
     resume execution after a failure, using
     status and results recorded at a
     checkpoint.
     (B) Period of time in the software life cycle
     during which support for a software
     product is terminated.
     (C) The fault detection mechanism is
     initiated after the system state has been
     changed to check if a fault has occurred*
     (D) None of these
573. Risk planning process
     (A) Extent to which a software module can
     be used in more than one computing
     program
     (B) It involves regular monitoring of the risks
     identified and of new risks that develops.
     (C) It considers each of the key risks that
     are identified and identifies strategies
     to manage the risk.
     (D) None of these
574. Software engineering method is
     (A) Associated with production of software
     as per specification
     (B) Structured approach to software
     development, whose aim is to facilitate
     the production of high-quality software
     in a cost-effective way.
     (C) An engineering discipline, concern with
     software development.
     (D) None of these
575. Restart is
     (A) Reason for a computer program to
     resume execution after a failure, using
     status and results recorded at a
     checkpoint.
     (B) Period of time in the software life cycle
     during which support for a software
     product is terminated.
     (C) The fault detection mechanism is
     initiated after the system state has been
     changed to check if a fault has occurred.
     (D) None of these
576. Risk Management is
     (A) Here each identified risk is analyzed and
     prioritized
     (B) It begins after all hazards are identified.
     For each hazard, the outcome of the risk
     assessment process is a statement of
     acceptability.
     (C) The anticipate risks which night affect
     the project schedule or the quality of the
     software being developed and to take
     action to avoid these risks.
     (D) None of these
577. ROCOF (Rate of failure occurrence) is
     (A) The probability that the system will
     cause an accident
     (B) Extent to which a system or component
     can function correctly in the presence of
     invalid inputs or stressful environment
     conditions.
     (C) The frequency of occurrence with which
     unexpected behavior is likely to occur
     (D) None of these
578. Software system is
     (A) Associated with functionality of software
     and constraints of operations defined.
     (B) It consists of computer programs,
     configuration files that are used to set
     up these programs system
     documentation for describing to
     structure of the system and used
     documentation that describes use of the
     system.
     (C) It involves executing an implementation
     of the software with test data and
     examines the outputs of the software
     and its operational behavior to check
     that it is performing as required
     (D) None of these
579. Scalability is
     (A) Avoiding catastrophic moment
     (B) Ease with which a system or component
     are modified to fit the problem area.
     (C) It is a bounded area of responsibility.
     (D) None of these
580. Risk analysis process is
     (A) Here each identified risk is analyzed and
     prioritized
     (B) It begins after all hazards are identified.
     For each hazard, the outcome of the risk
     assessment process is a statement of
     acceptability.
     (C) The anticipate risks which night affect
     the project schedule or the quality of the
     software being developed and to take
     action to avoid these risks.
     (D) None of these
581. Reusability is
     (A) Extent to which a software module can
     be used in more than one computing
     program.
     (B) It involves regular monitoring of the risks
     identified and of new risks that develops.
     106 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
     (C) It considers each of the key risks that
     are identified and also identifies
     strategies to manage the risk.
     (D) None of these
582. Safety argument is
     (A) Associated with the role of people
     involved in software process and the
     activities for which they are responsible.
     (B) The most effective technique for
     demonstrating the safety of a system is
     proof by contradiction.
     (C) It is concerned with establishing a
     confidence level in the system that might
     vary from low to high
     (D) None of these
583. Risk assessment is
     (A) Here each identified risk is analyzed and
     prioritized
     (B) It begins after all hazards are identified.
     For each hazard, the outcome of the risk
     assessment process is a statement of
     acceptability.
     (C) The anticipate risks which night affect
     the project schedule or the quality of the
     software being developed and to take
     action to avoid these risks.
     (D) None of these
584. Risk is
     (A) The probability that the system will
     cause an accident
     (B) Extent to which a system or component
     can function correctly in the presence of
     invalid inputs or stressful environment
     conditions.
     (C) The frequency of occurrence with which
     unexpected behavior is likely to occur.
     (D) None of these
585. Safety is
     (A) Avoiding catastrophic moment
     (B) Ease with which a system or component
     are modified to fit the problem area.
     (C) It is a bounded area of responsibility.
     (D) None of these
586. Role/action model is
     (A) Associated with the role of people
     involved in software process and the
     activities for which they are responsible
     (B) The most effective technique for
     demonstrating the safety of a system is
     proof by contradiction.
     (C) It is concerned with establishing a
     confidence level in the system that might
     vary from low to high
     (D) None of these
587. Role is
     (A) Avoiding catastrophic moment
     (B) Ease with which a system or component
     are modified to fit the problem area.
     (C) It is a bounded area of responsibility
     (D) None of these
588. Robustness is
     (A) The probability that the system will
     cause an accident
     (B) Extent to which a system or component
     can function correctly in the presence of
     invalid inputs or stressful environment
     conditions
     (C) The frequency of occurrence with which
     unexpected behavior is likely to occur.
     (D) None of these
589. Risk monitoring process
     (A) Extent to which a software module can
     be used in more than one computing
     program
     (B) It involves regular monitoring of the risks
     identified and of new risks that develops.
     (C) It considers each of the key risks that
     are identified and identifies strategies
     to manage the risk.
     (D) None of these
590. These objects can be realized as parallel
     process with method corresponding to
     defined object operations.
     (A) Self-descriptiveness
     (B) Servers
     (C) Simplicity
     (D) None of these
591. Safety validation is
     (A) Associated with the role of people
     involved in software process and the
     activities for which they are responsible.
     (B) The most effective technique for
     demonstrating the safety of a system is
     proof by contradiction.
     (C) It is concerned with establishing a
     confidence level in the system that might
     vary from low to high
     (D) None of these
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 107
592. Software process model
     (A) Time-period that begins when a
     software product is conceived and ends
     when the software is no longer available
     for use.
     (B) Adaptive maintenance, performed to
     make a computer program usable in a
     changed environment.
     (C) A simplified description of a software
     process that is presented from a
     particular perspective.
     (D) None of these
593. Extent to which a system or component
     contains enough information to explain its
     objectives and properties is referred as
     (A) Self-descriptiveness
     (B) Servers
     (C) Simplicity
     (D) None of these
594. Degree to which a system or component has
     a design and implementation that is
     straightforward and easy to understand is
     referred as
     (A) Self-descriptiveness
     (B) Servers
     (C) Simplicity
     (D) None of these
595. Software attributes are
     (A) Maintainability (B) Reliability
     (C) Portability (D) All the above
596. Software measurement is
     (A) It is the general process of changing
     system after it has been delivered. The
     changes can be to correct coding error
     to correct design error, or adding new
     components to system.
     (B) It is concerned with deriving a numeric
     value for some attribute of a software
     product or a software process.
     (C) It is any type of measurement, which
     relates to software system, process and
     related documentation.
     (D) None of these
597. Software development is
     (A) Associated with production of software
     as per specification
     (B) Structured approach to software
     development, whose aim is to facilitate
     the production of high-quality software
     in a cost-effective way.
     (C) An engineering discipline, concern with
     software development.
     (D) None of these
598. Software evolution is
     (A) It is concern with modification of existing
     system to meet changing requirements.
     (B) It is a process of converting system
     specifications into an executable
     system.
     (C) It analyzes and checks system
     representation such as the require￾ments document, design diagrams and
     program source code.
     (D) None of these
599. Software maintenance is
     (A) It is the general process of changing
     system after it has been delivered. The
     changes can be to correct coding error
     to correct design error, or adding new
     components to system.
     (B) It is concerned with deriving a numeric
     value for some attribute of a software
     product or a software process.
     (C) It is any type of measurement, which
     relates to software system, process and
     related documentation.
     (D) None of these
600. Software Engineering is
     (A) Associated with production of software
     as per specification
     (B) Structured approach to software
     development, whose aim is to facilitate
     the production of high-quality software
     in a cost-effective way.
     (C) An engineering discipline, concern with
     software development.
     (D) None of these
601. Software inspection is
     (A) It is concern with modification of existing
     system to meet changing requirements.
     (B) It is a process of converting system
     specifications into an executable system.
     (C) It analyzes and checks system
     representation such as the require￾ments document, design diagrams and
     program source code.
     (D) None of these
602. Software life cycle is
     (A) Time-period that begins when a
     software product is conceived and ends
     when the software is no longer available
     for use.
     (B) Adaptive maintenance, performed to
     make a computer program usable in a
     changed environment.
     (C) A simplified description of a software
     process that is presented from a
     particular perspective.
     (D) None of these
     108 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
603. Software requirements specification are
     (A) A set of activities and associated results
     that produce a software product.
     (B) It is concerned with re-implementing
     legacy system to make them more
     maintainable.
     (C) It is the official statement of what is
     required of the system developers; it
     includes uses requirements for a
     system and detailed specification of the
     system requirements
     (D) None of these.
604. Software migration and evolution is
     (A) Time-period that begins when a
     software product is conceived and ends
     when the software is no longer available
     for use.
     (B) Adaptive maintenance, performed to
     make a computer program usable in a
     changed environment.
     (C) A simplified description of a software
     process that is presented from a
     particular perspective.
     (D) None of these
605. Software process is
     (A) A set of activities and associated results
     that produce a software product
     (B) It is concerned with re-implementing
     legacy system to make them more
     maintainable.
     (C) It is the official statement of what is
     required of the system developers; it
     includes uses requirements for a
     system and detailed specification of the
     system requirements
     (D) None of these.
606. Software re-engineering is
     (A) A set of activities and associated results
     that produce a software product.
     (B) It is concerned with re-implementing
     legacy system to make them more
     maintainable
     (C) It is the official statement of what is
     required of the system developers; it
     includes uses requirements for a
     system and detailed specification of the
     system requirements
     (D) None of these.
607. Procedural interface
     (A) Trustworthiness with which a system
     are transferred from one hardware
     environment to another
     (B) Here one sub system encapsulates a
     set of procedures, which can be called
     by other sub-systems.
     (C) It is concerned with studying existing
     process to understand the relationship
     between different parts of the process.
     (D) None of these
608. Software metric is
     (A) It is the general process of changing
     system after it has been delivered. The
     changes can be to correct coding error
     to correct design error, or adding new
     components to system.
     (B) It is concerned with deriving a numeric
     value for some attribute of a software
     product or a software process.
     (C) It is any type of measurement, which
     relates to software system, process and
     related documentation.
     (D) None of these
609. Software specification is
     (A) Associated with functionality of software
     and constraints of operations defined.
     (B) It consists of computer programs,
     configuration files that are used to set
     up these programs system documen￾tation for describing to structure of the
     system and used documentation that
     describes use of the system.
     (C) It involves executing an implementation
     of the software with test data and
     examines the outputs of the software
     and its operational behavior to check
     that it is performing as required
     (D) None of these
610. System is
     (A) The set of system services and
     constraints in details
     (B) System functions that restricts the use
     of objects to certain users.
     (C) Purposeful collection of interrelated
     components that work together to
     achieve some objective.
     (D) None of these
611. Software testing is
     (A) Associated with functionality of software
     and constraints of operations defined.
     (B) It consists of computer programs,
     configuration files that are used to set
     up these programs system
     documentation for describing to
     structure of the system and used
     documentation that describes use of the
     system.
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 109
     (C) It involves executing an implementation
     of the software with test data and
     examines the outputs of the software
     and its operational behavior to check
     that it is performing as required
     (D) None of these
612. It is concerned with making decision about
     the best way for an organization that acquire
     a system and deciding on the best suppliers
     of that system.
     (A) System procurement
     (B) System quality assessment
     (C) System release management
     (D) System reliability
613. It is responsible for deciding when the
     system can be released to customers,
     managing the process of creating the
     release and distribution media and documen￾ting the release.
     (A) System procurement
     (B) System quality assessment
     (C) System release management
     (D) System reliability
614. Process analysis
     (A) Trustworthiness with which a system
     are transferred from one hardware
     environment to another
     (B) Here one sub system encapsulates a
     set of procedures, which can be called
     by other sub-systems.
     (C) It is concerned with studying existing
     process to understand the relationship
     between different parts of the process.
     (D) None of these
615. System requirements are
     (A) The set of system services and
     constraints in details
     (B) System functions that restricts the use
     of objects to certain users.
     (C) Purposeful collection of interrelated
     components that work together to
     achieve some objective.
     (D) None of these
616. System security is
     (A) The set of system services and
     constraints in details
     (B) System functions that restricts the use
     of objects to certain users
     (C) Purposeful collection of interrelated
     components that work together to
     achieve some objective.
     (D) None of these
617. Portability
     (A) Trustworthiness with which a system
     are transferred from one hardware
     environment to another
     (B) Here one sub system encapsulates a
     set of procedures, which can be called
     by other sub-systems.
     (C) It is concerned with studying existing
     process to understand the relationship
     between different parts of the process.
     (D) None of these
618. Lehman’s Third Law (Lehman and Belady
     1985) is
     (A) Continuing change: A program used in
     real-world environment must change
     necessarily or become progressively
     less useful in that environment.
     (B) Increase complexity: As an evolving
     program change, its strictures tend to
     become more complex. Extra resources
     must be devoted to preserving and
     simplifying the structure.
     (C) Large program evolution: Program
     evolution is a self-regulating process.
     (D) None of these
619. Model is
     (A) These measurements need to be
     collected to help answers to the
     questions and to confirm whether
     process improvements have achieved
     the desired goal.
     (B) Approximation, representation, or
     idealization of selected aspects of the
     structure, behavior, operation, or other
     characteristics of a real-world process
     (C) Extent to which a system or component
     facilitates the incorporation of changes,
     once the nature of the desired change
     has been determined.
     (D) None of these
620. Lehman’s Fifth Law (Lehman and Belady
     1985) is
     (A) Organizational stability: Over a pro￾gram’s lifetime, its rate of development
     is approximately constant and
     independent of the resources devoted
     to system development.
     (B) Conservation of familiarity: Over the
     lifetime of a system, the incremental
     change in each release is approxima￾tely constant.
     (C) Large program evolution: Program
     evolution is a self-regulating process.
     (D) None of these
621. Match the following : A- Maintenance control:
     B-Maintenance measures: C-Maintenance
     personnel : 1-Cost of planning and
     scheduling hardware preventive main￾tenance, and software maintenance and
     upgrades, managing the hardware and
     software baselines, and providing response
     for hardware corrective maintenance. 2-
     Measures that address how easily a system
     can be repaired or changed. 3-Number of
     110 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
     personnel needed to maintain all aspects
     of a computer system, including the support
     personnel and facilities needed to support
     that activity.
     (A) A-1, B-3,C-2 (B) A-1,B-2,C-3
     (C) A-2,B-3,C-1 (D) A-3,B-2,C-1
622. Organizational measures
     (A) Extent to which a system or component
     complies with standards
     (B) Trustworthiness of operating the
     software.
     (C) Measures that estimates system cost
     to operate and maintain
     (D) None of these
623. Metric is
     (A) These measurements need to be
     collected to help answers to the
     questions and to confirm whether
     process improvements have achieved
     the desired goal.
     (B) Approximation, representation, or
     idealization of selected aspects of the
     structure, behavior, operation, or other
     characteristics of a real-world process
     (C) Extent to which a system or component
     facilitates the incorporation of changes,
     once the nature of the desired change
     has been determined.
     (D) None of these
624. It shows the objects and object classes in a
     system and the relationship between these
     entities.
     (A) Object design models
     (B) Object interface design
     (C) Object oriented models
     (D) None of these
625. It is concerned with specifying the details of
     interface to an object or to a group of objects
     (A) Object design models
     (B) Object interface design
     (C) Object oriented models
     (D) None of these
626. Modifiability is
     (A) These measurements need to be
     collected to help answers to the
     questions and to confirm whether
     process improvements have achieved
     the desired goal.
     (B) Approximation, representation, or
     idealization of selected aspects of the
     structure, behavior, operation, or other
     characteristics of a real-world process*
     (C) Extent to which a system or component
     facilitates the incorporation of changes,
     once the nature of the desired change
     has been determined.
     (D) None of these
     Answer Sheet
627. (A) 2. (C) 3. (D) 4. (A) 5. (C)
628. (A) 7. (A) 8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (D)
629. (C) 12. (B) 13. (B) 14. (D) 15. (B)
630. (C) 17. (B) 18. (A) 19. (B) 20. (A)
631. (B) 22. (C) 23. (D) 24. (A) 25. (C)
632. (C) 27. (C) 28. (C) 29. (C) 30. (A)
633. (D) 32. (B) 33. (B) 34. (C) 35. (D)
634. (A) 37. (B) 38. (C) 39. (D) 40. (D)
635. (A) 42. (C) 43. (C) 44. (D) 45. (A)
636. (B) 47. (A) 48. (C) 49. (D) 50. (B)
637. (C) 52. (A) 53. (D) 54. (D) 55. (A)
638. (C) 57. (C) 58. (C) 59. (D) 60. (D
639. (D) 62. (D) 63. (A) 64. (B) 65. (B)
640. (A) 67. (C) 68. (D) 69. (A) 70. (C)
641. (A) 72. (A) 73. (A) 74. (D) 75. (C)
642. (D) 77. (D) 78. (C) 79. (A) 80. (D)
643. (A) 82. (A) 83. (B) 84. (B) 85. (C)
644. (A) 87. (A) 88. (A) 89. (A) 90. (A)
645. (D) 92. (C) 93. (A) 94. (B) 95. (A)
646. (A) 97. (A) 98. (A) 99. (B) 100. (B)
647. (A) 102. (A) 103. (B) 104. (D) 105. (A)
648. (A) 107. (A) 108. (B) 109. (C) 110. (C)
649. (A) 112. (A) 113. (C) 114. (B) 115. (A)
650. (B) 117. (B) 118. (D) 119. (A) 120. (A)
651. (B) 122. (A) 123. (C) 124. (C) 125. (A)
652. (B) 127. (C) 128. (D) 129. (A) 130. (C)
653. (B) 132. (D) 133. ( A) 134. (B) 135. (C)
654. (A) 137. (A) 138. (B) 139. (D) 140. (C)
655. (D) 142. (A) 143. (B) 144. (C) 145. (C)
656. (D) 147. (B) 148. (A) 149. (A) 150. (A)
657. (C) 152. (A) 153. (A) 154. (C) 155. (A)
658. (D) 157. (B) 158. (B) 159. (C) 160. (C)
659. (B) 162. (D) 163. (A) 164. (B) 165. (C)
660. (D) 167. (C) 168. (A) 169. (B) 170. (B)
661. (B) 172. (C) 173. (B) 174. (C) 175. (A)
662. (D) 177. (A) 178. (B) 179. (B) 180. (A)
663. (D) 182. (A) 183. (C) 184. (A) 185. (B)
664. (A) 187. (A) 188. (D) 189. (B) 190. (B)
665. (A) 192. (A) 193. (D) 194. (B) 195. (B)
666. (C) 197. (A) 198. (A) 199. (B) 200. (A)
667. (C) 202. (B) 203. (C) 204. (B) 205. (C)
668. (A) 207. (C) 208. (A) 209. (A) 210. (A)
669. (C) 212. (C) 213. (D) 214. (A) 215. (B)
670. (B) 217. () 218. (B) 219. (C) 220. (A)
671. (A) 222. (C) 223. (B) 224. (C) 225. (C)
672. (B) 227. (A) 228. (C) 229. (C) 230. (B)
673. (B) 232. (A) 233. (A) 234. (B) 235. (B)
674. (A) 237. (A) 238. (A) 239. (C) 240. (B)
675. (B) 242. (B) 243. (C) 244. (C) 245. (A)
676. (C) 247. (D) 248. (B) 249. (A) 250. (A)
677. (A) 252. (C) 253. (A) 254. (A) 255. (C)
678. (B) 257. (A) 258. (B) 259. (B) 260. (A)
679. (A) 262. (C) 263. (C) 264. (A) 265. (C)
680. (C) 267. (A) 268. (B) 269. (A) 270. (C)
681. (B) 272. (B) 273. (B) 274. (C) 275. (A)
682. (A) 277. (B) 278. (C)
     DATA STRUCTURES &
     ALGORITHMS
683. Each data item in a record may be a group
     item composed of sub-items; those items
     which are indecomposable are called
     (A) Elementary items
     (B) Atoms
     (C) Scalars
     (D) All of above
684. Which of the following statement is false ?
     (A) Arrays are dense lists and static data
     structure
     (B) Data elements in linked list need not be
     stored in adjacent space in memory
     (C) Pointers store the next data element of
     a list
     (D) Linked lists are collection of the nodes
     that contain information part and next
     pointer
685. Binary search algorithm cannot be applied
     to
     (A) Sorted binary trees
     (B) Sorted linear array
     (C) Pointer array
     (D) Sorted linked list
686. When new data are to be inserted into a data
     structure, but there is no available space;
     this situation is usually called
     (A) Housefull (B) Saturated
     (C) Underflow (D) Overflow
687. The situation when in a linked list
     START=NULL is
     (A) Underflow (B) Overflow
     (C) Housefull (D) Saturated
688. The following is two-way list
     (A) Grounded header list
     (B) Circular header list
     (C) Linked list with header and trailer nodes
     (D) None of above
689. The following name does not relate to stacks
     (A) FIFO lists (B) LIFO list
     (C) Piles (D) Push-down lists
690. In a binary tree, certain null entries are re￾placed by special pointers which point to
     nodes higher in tree for efficiency. These
     special pointers are called
     (A) Leaf (B) Branch
     (C) Path (D) Thread
691. In a graph if e=(u, v) means
     (A) e begins at u and ends at v
     (B) u is processor and v is successor
     (C) both B and C are true
     (D) none is true
692. If every node u in G is adjacent to every other
     node v in G, A graph is said to be
     (A) Isolated (B) Complete
     (C) Finite (D) Strongly connected
693. A variable P is called pointer if
     (A) P points to the address of first element
     in DATA
     (B) P can store only memory addresses
     (C) P contain the DATA and the address of
     DATA
     (D) P contains the address of an element
     in DATA.
694. The Worst case occur in linear search algo￾rithm when
     (A) Item is not in the array at all
     (B) Item is the last element in the array
     (C) Item is the last element in the array or is
     not there at all
     (D) None of above
695. The Average case occur in linear search al￾gorithm
     (A) When Item is somewhere in the middle
     of the array
     (B) When Item is not in the array at all
     (C) When Item is the last element in the ar￾ray
     (D) All the above
     112 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
696. The complexity of the average case of an
     algorithm is
     (A) Much more complicated to analyze than
     that of worst case
     (B) Much more simpler to analyze than that
     of worst case
     (C) Sometimes more complicated and
     some other times simpler than that of
     worst case
     (D) None of the above
697. The following data structure allows deleting
     data elements from front and inserting at rear
     (A) Stacks (B) Queues
     (C) Deques (D) Binary search tree
698. This data structure allows deletions at both
     ends of the list but insertion at only one end.
     (A) Input-restricted deque
     (B) Output-restricted deque
     (C) Priority queues
     (D) None of the above
699. The following data structure is non-linear
     type
     (A) Strings (B) Lists
     (C) Stacks (D) None of the above
700. The following data structure is linear type
     (A) Strings (B) Lists
     (C) Queues (D) All of the above
701. To represent hierarchical relationship be￾tween elements, the following data structure
     is not suitable
     (A) Deque (B) Priority
     (C) Tree (D) All of above
702. A binary tree whose every node has either
     zero or two children is called
     (A) Complete binary tree
     (B) Binary search tree
     (C) Extended binary tree
     (D) None of above
703. The depth of a complete binary tree is given
     by
     (A) Dn
     = n log2
     n (B) Dn
     = n log2n+1
     (C) Dn = log2
     n (D) Dn
     = log2
     n+1
704. The complexity of Binary search algorithm is
     (A) O(n) (B) O(log )
     (C) O(n log n) (D) None of the above
705. The complexity of Bubble sort algorithm is
     (A) O(n) (B) O (n2)
     (C) O(n log n) (D) None of the above
706. When in order traversing a tree resulted E A
     C K F H D B G; the preorder traversal would
     return
     (A) FAEKCDBHG (B) FAEKCDHGB
     (C) EAFKHDCBG (D) FEAKDCHBG
707. When representing any algebraic expression
     E the following uses only binary operations
     in a 2-tree
     (A) the variable in E will appear as external
     nodes and operations in internal nodes
     (B) the operations in E will appear as exter￾nal nodes and variables in internal
     nodes
     (C) the variables and operations in E will
     appear only in internal nodes
     (D) None of the above
708. When converting binary tree into extended
     binary tree, all the original nodes in binary
     tree are
     (A) internal nodes on extended tree
     (B) external nodes on extended tree
     (C) vanished on extended tree
     (D) None of the above
709. The post order traversal of a binary tree is
     DEBFCA. Find out the pre order traversal
     (A) ABFCDE (B) ADBFEC
     (C) ABDECF (D) None of the above
710. Which of the following data structure is lin￾ear data structure?
     (A) Trees (B) Graphs
     (C) Arrays (D) None of the above
711. The operation of processing each element
     in the list is known as
     (A) Merging (B) Inserting
     (C) Traversal (D) All the above
712. Finding the location of the element with a
     given value is called
     (A) Traversal (B) Search
     (C) Sort (D) All of the above
713. Arrays are best data structures for
     (A) relatively permanent collections of data
     (B) the size of the structure and the data in
     the structure are constantly changing
     (C) both of above situation
     (D) none of above situation
714. Linked lists are best suited for
     (A) relatively permanent collections of data
     (B) the size of the structure and the data in
     the structure are constantly changing
     (C) both of above situation
     (D) none of above situation
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 113
715. Each array declaration need not give, implicitly
     or explicitly, the information about the
     (A) name of array
     (B) data type of array
     (C) first data from the set to be stored
     (D) index set of the array
716. The complexity of merge sort algorithm is
     (A) O(n) (B) O(log n)
     (C) O(n log n) (D) None of these
717. The indirect change of the values of a vari￾able in one module by another module is
     called
     (A) internal change
     (B) inter-module change
     (C) side effect
     (D) all the above
718. Two main measures for the efficiency of an
     algorithm are
     (A) Time and space
     (B) Processor and memory
     (C) Complexity and capacity
     (D) Data and space
719. The time factor when determining the effi￾ciency of algorithm is measured by
     (A) Counting the number of key operations
     (B) Counting the number of statements
     (C) Counting the kilobytes of algorithm
     (D) None of the above
720. The space factor when determining the effi￾ciency of algorithm is measured by
     (A) Counting the maximum memory
     needed by the algorithm
     (B) Counting the minimum memory needed
     by the algorithm
     (C) Counting the average memory needed
     by the algorithm
     (D) Counting the maximum disk space
     needed by the algorithm
721. All the above* Which of the following data
     structures are indexed structures
     (A) linear arrays (B) linked lists
     (C) both of above (D) none of above
722. Which of the following is not the required
     condition for binary search algorithm
     (A) there must be mechanism to delete and/
     or insert elements in list
     (B) the list must be sorted
     (C) there should be the direct access to the
     middle element in any sublist
     (D) none of the above
723. Which of the following is not a limitation of
     binary search algorithm ?
     (A) binary search algorithm is not efficient
     when the data elements are more than
     1000.
     (B) must use a sorted array
     (C) requirement of sorted array is expen￾sive when a lot of insertion and dele￾tions are needed
     (D) there must be a mechanism to access
     middle element directly
724. Two dimensional arrays are also called
     (A) tables arrays
     (B) matrix arrays
     (C) both of the above
     (D) none of the above
725. The term “push” and “pop” is related to the
     (A) Array (B) Lists
     (C) stacks (D) all of above
726. A data structure where elements can be
     added or removed at either end but not in
     the middle is referred as
     (A) Linked lists (B) Stacks
     (C) Queues (D) Deque
727. The following sorting algorithm is of divide￾and-conquer type
     (A) Bubble sort (B) Insertion sort
     (C) Quick sort (D) None of the above
728. An algorithm that calls itself directly or indi￾rectly is known as
     (A) Recursion
     (B) Polish notation
     (C) Traversal algorithm
     (D) None of the above
729. The elements of an array are stored suc￾cessively in memory cells because
     (A) by this way computer can keep track only
     the address of the first element and the
     addresses of other elements can be
     calculated
     (B) the architecture of computer memory
     does not allow arrays to store other than
     serially
     (C) A and B both false
     (D) A and B both true
730. The memory address of the first element of
     an array is called
     (A) base address (B) floor address
     (C) foundation address (D) first address
     114 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
731. The memory address of fifth element of an
     array can be calculated by the formula
     (A) LOC(Array[5])=Base(Array[5])+(5-lower
     boun(D), where w is the number of
     words per memory cell for the array
     (B) LOC(Array[5])=Base(Array[4])+(5-Upper
     boun(D), where w is the number of
     words per memory cell for the array
     (C) LOC(Array[5]=Base(Array)+w(5-lower
     boun(D), where w is the number of
     words per memory cell for the array
     (D) None of the above
732. The following data structure can’t store the
     non-homogeneous data elements
     (A) Arrays (B) Records
     (C) Pointers (D) None of the above
733. The in order traversal of tree will yield a sorted
     listing of elements of tree in
     (A) Binary trees
     (B) Binary search trees
     (C) Heaps
     (D) None of above
734. In a Heap tree values in a node is greater
     than
     (A) every value in left sub tree and smaller
     than right sub tree
     (B) every value in children of it
     (C) Both of above conditions are true
     (D) None of above conditions are true
735. In a graph if e=[u, v], Then u and v are called
     (A) endpoints of e
     (B) adjacent nodes
     (C) neighbors
     (D) all of the above
736. A connected graph T without any cycles is
     called
     (A) tree graph (B) free tree
     (C) tree (D) All of the above
737. The difference between linear array and a
     record is
     (A) An array is suitable for homogeneous
     data but hte data items in a record may
     have different data type
     (B) In a record, there may not be a natural
     ordering in opposed to linear array.
     (C) A record form a hierarchical structure but
     a linear array does not
     (D) All of above
738. The following data structure store the ho￾mogeneous data elements
     (A) Arrays (B) Records
     (C) Pointers (D) None of the above
739. Which of the following data structure is not
     linear data structure?
     (A) Arrays (B) Linked lists
     (C) A and B are true (D) None is true
     Answer Sheet
740. (D) 2. (C) 3. (D) 4. (D) 5. (A)
741. (D) 7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (B)
742. (D) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (B)
743. (A) 17. (D) 18. (D) 19. (C) 20. (C)
744. (D) 22. (B) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (A)
745. (A) 27. (C) 28. (C) 29. (C) 30. (B)
746. (A) 32. (B) 33. (C) 34. (C) 35. (C)
747. (A) 37. (A) 38. (A) 39. (A) 40. (A)
748. (A) 42. (C) 43. (C) 44. (D) 45. (B)
749. (A) 47. (A) 48. (A) 49. (C) 50. (A)
750. (B) 52. (B) 53. (D) 54. (D) 55. (D)
751. (B) 57. (C)
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 115
     DATA MINING AND DATA
     WARE HOUSE
752. Adaptive system management is
     (A) It uses machine-learning techniques.
     Here program can learn from past
     experience and adapt themselves to
     new situations
     (B) Computational procedure that takes
     some value as input and produces
     some value as output.
     (C) Science of making machines performs
     tasks that would require intelligence
     when performed by humans
     (D) None of these
753. Algorithm is
     (A) It uses machine-learning techniques.
     Here program can learn from past
     experience and adapt themselves to
     new situations
     (B) Computational procedure that takes
     some value as input and produces
     some value as output
     (C) Science of making machines performs
     tasks that would require intelligence
     when performed by humans
     (D) None of these
754. Background knowledge referred to
     (A) Additional acquaintance used by a
     learning algorithm to facilitate the
     learning process
     (B) A neural network that makes use of a
     hidden layer.
     (C) It is a form of automatic learning.
     (D) None of these
755. Back propagation networks is
     (A) Additional acquaintance used by a
     learning algorithm to facilitate the
     learning process
     (B) A neural network that makes use of a
     hidden layer
     (C) It is a form of automatic learning.
     (D) None of these
756. Bayesian classifiers is
     (A) A class of learning algorithm that tries
     to find an optimum classification of a
     set of examples using the probabilistic
     theory.
     (B) Any mechanism employed by a learning
     system to constrain the search space
     of a hypothesis.
     (C) An approach to the design of learning
     algorithms that is inspired by the fact
     that when people encounter new
     situations, they often explain them by
     reference to familiar experiences,
     adapting the explanations to fit the new
     situation.
     (D) None of these
757. Bias is
     (A) A class of learning algorithm that tries
     to find an optimum classification of a
     set of examples using the probabilistic
     theory.
     (B) Any mechanism employed by a learning
     system to constrain the search space
     of a hypothesis.
     (C) An approach to the design of learning
     algorithms that is inspired by the fact
     that when people encounter new
     situations, they often explain them by
     reference to familiar experiences,
     adapting the explanations to fit the new
     situation.
     (D) None of these
758. Case-based learning is
     (A) A class of learning algorithm that tries
     to find an optimum classification of a
     set of examples using the probabilistic
     theory.
     (B) Any mechanism employed by a learning
     system to constrain the search space
     of a hypothesis.
     116 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
     (C) An approach to the design of learning
     algorithms that is inspired by the fact
     that when people encounter new
     situations, they often explain them by
     reference to familiar experiences,
     adapting the explanations to fit the new
     situation.
     (D) None of these
759. Binary attribute are
     (A) This takes only two values. In general,
     these values will be 0 and 1 and they
     can be coded as one bit
     (B) The natural environment of a certain
     species
     (C) Systems that can be used without
     knowledge of internal operations
     (D) None of these
760. Biotope are
     (A) This takes only two values. In general,
     these values will be 0 and 1 and they
     can be coded as one bit.
     (B) The natural environment of a certain
     species
     (C) Systems that can be used without
     knowledge of internal operations
     (D) None of these
761. Black boxes
     (A) This takes only two values. In general,
     these values will be 0 and 1 and they
     can be coded as one bit.
     (B) The natural environment of a certain
     species
     (C) Systems that can be used without
     knowledge of internal operations
     (D) None of these
762. Artificial intelligence is
     (A) It uses machine-learning techniques.
     Here program can learn from past
     experience and adapt themselves to
     new situations
     (B) Computational procedure that takes
     some value as input and produces
     some value as output.
     (C) Science of making machines performs
     tasks that would require intelligence
     when performed by humans
     (D) None of these
763. Cache is
     (A) It is a memory buffer that is used to store
     data that is needed frequently by an
     algorithm in order to minimize input/
     output traffic
     (B) The number of different values that a
     given attribute can take
     (C) A mathematical conception of space
     where the location of a point is given by
     reference to its distance from two or
     three axes intersecting at right angles
     (D) None of these
764. Cardinality of an attribute is
     (A) It is a memory buffer that is used to store
     data that is needed frequently by an
     algorithm in order to minimize input/
     output traffic
     (B) The number of different values that a
     given attribute can take
     (C) A mathematical conception of space
     where the location of a point is given by
     reference to its distance from two or
     three axes intersecting at right angles
     (D) None of these
765. Cartesian space is
     (A) It is a memory buffer that is used to store
     data that is needed frequently by an
     algorithm in order to minimize input/
     output traffic
     (B) The number of different values that a
     given attribute can take
     (C) A mathematical conception of space
     where the location of a point is given by
     reference to its distance from two or
     three axes intersecting at right angles
     (D) None of these
766. Classification is
     (A) A subdivision of a set of examples into a
     number of classes
     (B) A measure of the accuracy, of the
     classification of a concept that is given
     by a certain theory
     (C) The task of assigning a classification
     to a set of examples
     (D) None of these
767. Classification accuracy is
     (A) A subdivision of a set of examples into a
     number of classes
     (B) Measure of the accuracy, of the
     classification of a concept that is given
     by a certain theory
     (C) The task of assigning a classification
     to a set of examples
     (D) None of these
768. Cluster is
     (A) Group of similar objects that differ
     significantly from other objects
     (B) Operations on a database to transform
     or simplify data in order to prepare it for
     a machine-learning algorithm
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 117
     (C) Symbolic representation of facts or
     ideas from which information can
     potentially be extracted
     (D) None of these
769. Data is
     (A) Group of similar objects that differ
     significantly from other objects
     (B) Operations on a database to transform
     or simplify data in order to prepare it for
     a machine-learning algorithm
     (C) Symbolic representation of facts or
     ideas from which information can
     potentially be extracte(D)
     (D) None of these
770. A definition of a concept is——if it recognizes
     all the instances of that concept.
     (A) Complete (B) Consistent
     (C) Constant (D) None of these
771. A definition or a concept is ———————if
     it does not classify any examples as
     coming within the concept
     (A) Complete (B) Consistent
     (C) Constant (D) None of these
772. Classification task referred to
     (A) A subdivision of a set of examples into a
     number of classes
     (B) A measure of the accuracy, of the
     classification of a concept that is given
     by a certain theory
     (C) The task of assigning a classification
     to a set of examples
     (D) None of these
773. Database is
     (A) Large collection of data mostly stored
     in a computer system
     (B) The removal of noise errors and
     incorrect input from a database
     (C) The systematic description of the
     syntactic structure of a specific
     database. It describes the structure of
     the attributes the tables and foreign key
     relationships.
     (D) None of these
774. Data cleaning is
     (A) Large collection of data mostly stored
     in a computer system
     (B) The removal of noise errors and
     incorrect input from a database
     (C) The systematic description of the
     syntactic structure of a specific
     database. It describes the structure of
     the attributes the tables and foreign key
     relationships.
     (D) None of these
775. Data dictionary is
     (A) Large collection of data mostly stored
     in a computer system
     (B) The removal of noise errors and
     incorrect input from a database
     (C) The systematic description of the
     syntactic structure of a specific
     database. It describes the structure of
     the attributes the tables and foreign key
     relationships.
     (D) None of these
776. Data mining is
     (A) The actual discovery phase of a
     knowledge discovery process
     (B) The stage of selecting the right data for
     a KDD process
     (C) A subject-oriented integrated time￾variant non-volatile collection of data in
     support of management
     (D) None of these
777. Data selection is
     (A) The actual discovery phase of a
     knowledge discovery process
     (B) The stage of selecting the right data for
     a KDD process
     (C) A subject-oriented integrated time￾variant non-volatile collection of data in
     support of management
     (D) None of these
778. Data warehouse is
     (A) The actual discovery phase of a
     knowledge discovery process
     (B) The stage of selecting the right data for
     a KDD process
     (C) A subject-oriented integrated time￾variant non-volatile collection of data in
     support of management
     (D) None of these
779. Coding is
     (A) Group of similar objects that differ
     significantly from other objects
     (B) Operations on a database to transform
     or simplify data in order to prepare it for
     a machine-learning algorithm
     (C) Symbolic representation of facts or
     ideas from which information can
     potentially be extracted
     (D) None of these
     118 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
780. DB/2 is
     (A) A family of relational database manage￾ment systems marketed by IBM
     (B) Interactive systems that enable decision
     makers to use databases and models
     on a computer in order to solve ill￾structured problems
     (C) It consists of nodes and branches
     starting from a single root node. Each
     node represents a test, or decision.
     (D) None of these
781. Decision support systems (DSS) is
     (A) A family of relational database
     management systems marketed by IBM
     (B) Interactive systems that enable decision
     makers to use databases and models
     on a computer in order to solve ill￾structured problems
     (C) It consists of nodes and branches
     starting from a single root node. Each
     node represents a test, or decision.
     (D) None of these
782. Decision trees is
     (A) A family of relational database
     management systems marketed by IBM
     (B) Interactive systems that enable decision
     makers to use databases and models
     on a computer in order to solve ill￾structured problems
     (C) It consists of nodes and branches
     starting from a single root node. Each
     node represents a test, or decision.
     (D) None of these
783. Deep knowledge referred to
     (A) It is hidden within a database and can
     only be recovered if one is given certain
     clues (an example IS encrypted
     information)
     (B) The process of executing implicit
     previously unknown and potentially
     useful information from dat(A)
     (C) An extremely complex molecule that
     occurs in human chromosomes and
     that carries genetic information in the
     form of genes.
     (D) None of these
784. Discovery is
     (A) It is hidden within a database and can
     only be recovered if one is given certain
     clues (an example IS encrypted
     information).
     (B) The process of executing implicit
     previously unknown and potentially
     useful information from dat(A)
     (C) An extremely complex molecule that
     occurs in human chromosomes and
     that carries genetic information in the
     form of genes.
     (D) None of these
785. DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid)
     (A) It is hidden within a database and can
     only be recovered if one is given certain
     clues (an example IS encrypted
     information).
     (B) The process of executing implicit
     previously unknown and potentially
     useful information from dat (A)
     (C) An extremely complex molecule that
     occurs in human chromosomes and
     that carries genetic information in the
     form of genes.
     (D) None of these
786. Enrichment is
     (A) A stage of the KDD process in which
     new data is added to the existing
     selection
     (B) The process of finding a solution for a
     problem simply by enumerating all
     possible solutions according to some
     pre-defined order and then testing them.
     (C) The distance between two points as
     calculated using the Pythagoras
     theorem.
     (D) None of these
787. Enumeration is referred to
     (A) A stage of the KDD process in which
     new data is added to the existing
     selection.
     (B) The process of finding a solution for a
     problem simply by enumerating all
     possible solutions according to some
     pre-defined order and then testing them
     (C) The distance between two points as
     calculated using the Pythagoras
     theorem.
     (D) None of these
788. Euclidean distance measure is
     (A) A stage of the KDD process in which
     new data is added to the existing
     selection.
     (B) The process of finding a solution for a
     problem simply by enumerating all
     possible solutions according to some
     pre-defined order and then testing them.
     (C) The distance between two points as
     calculated using the Pythagoras theo￾rem
     (D) None of these
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 119
789. Heuristic is
     (A) A set of databases from different
     vendors, possibly using different
     database paradigms
     (B) An approach to a problem that is not
     guaranteed to work but performs well in
     most cases.
     (C) Information that is hidden in a database
     and that cannot be recovered by a
     simple SQL query.
     (D) None of these
790. Heterogeneous databases referred to
     (A) A set of databases from different
     vendors, possibly using different
     database paradigms
     (B) An approach to a problem that is not
     guaranteed to work but performs well in
     most cases.
     (C) Information that is hidden in a database
     and that cannot be recovered by a
     simple SQL query.
     (D) None of these
791. Hidden knowledge referred to
     (A) A set of databases from different
     vendors, possibly using different
     database paradigms
     (B) An approach to a problem that is not
     guaranteed to work but performs well in
     most cases.
     (C) Information that is hidden in a database
     and that cannot be recovered by a
     simple SQL query.
     (D) None of these
792. Hybrid is
     (A) Combining different types of method or
     information
     (B) Approach to the design of learning
     algorithms that is structured along the
     lines of the theory of evolution.
     (C) Decision support systems that contain
     an Information base filled with the
     knowledge of an expert formulated in
     terms of if-then rules.
     (D) None of these
793. Evolutionary computation is
     (A) Combining different types of method or
     information
     (B) Approach to the design of learning
     algorithms that is structured along the
     lines of the theory of evolution.
     (C) Decision support systems that contain
     an Information base filled with the
     knowledge of an expert formulated in
     terms of if-then rules.
     (D) None of these
794. Expert systems
     (A) Combining different types of method or
     information
     (B) Approach to the design of learning
     algorithms that is structured along the
     lines of the theory of evolution.
     (C) Decision support systems that contain
     an Information base filled with the
     knowledge of an expert formulated in
     terms of if-then rules
     (D) None of these
795. Extendible architecture is
     (A) Modular design of a software application
     that facilitates the integration of new
     modules
     (B) Showing a universal law or rule to be
     invalid by providing a counter example
     (C) A set of attributes in a database table
     that refers to data in another table
     (D) None of these
796. Falsification is
     (A) Modular design of a software application
     that facilitates the integration of new
     modules
     (B) Showing a universal law or rule to be
     invalid by providing a counter example
     (C) A set of attributes in a database table
     that refers to data in another table
     (D) None of these
797. Foreign key is
     (A) Modular design of a software application
     that facilitates the integration of new
     modules
     (B) Showing a universal law or rule to be
     invalid by providing a counter example
     (C) A set of attributes in a database table
     that refers to data in another table
     (D) None of these
798. Hybrid learning is
     (A) Machine-learning involving different
     techniques
     (B) The learning algorithmic analyzes the
     examples on a systematic basis and
     makes incremental adjustments to the
     theory that is learned
     (C) Learning by generalizing from examples
     (D) None of these
799. Incremental learning referred to
     (A) Machine-learning involving different
     techniques
     (B) The learning algorithmic analyzes the
     examples on a systematic basis and
     makes incremental adjustments to the
     theory that is learned
     120 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
     (C) Learning by generalizing from examples
     (D) None of these
800. Information content is
     (A) The amount of information with in data
     as opposed to the amount of redundancy
     or noise
     (B) One of the defining aspects of a data
     warehouse
     (C) Restriction that requires data in one
     column of a database table to the a sub￾set of another-column.
     (D) None of these
801. Inclusion dependencies
     (A) The amount of information with in data
     as opposed to the amount of redundancy
     or noise
     (B) One of the defining aspects of a data
     warehouse
     (C) Restriction that requires data in one
     column of a database table to the a sub￾set of another-column
     (D) None of these
802. KDD (Knowledge Discovery in Databases)
     is referred to
     (A) Non-trivial extraction of implicit
     previously unknown and potentially
     useful information from dat(A)
     (B) Set of columns in a database table that
     can be used to identify each record
     within this table uniquely.
     (C) collection of interesting and useful
     patterns in a database
     (D) none of these
803. Key is referred to
     (A) Non-trivial extraction of implicit
     previously unknown and potentially
     useful information from dat(A)
     (B) Set of columns in a database table that
     can be used to identify each record
     within this table uniquely
     (C) collection of interesting and useful
     patterns in a database
     (D) none of these
804. Inductive learning is
     (A) Machine-learning involving different
     techniques
     (B) The learning algorithmic analyzes the
     examples on a systematic basis and
     makes incremental adjustments to the
     theory that is learned
     (C) Learning by generalizing from examples
     (D) None of these
805. Integrated is
     (A) The amount of information with in data
     as opposed to the amount of redundancy
     or noise
     (B) One of the defining aspects of a data
     warehouse
     (C) Restriction that requires data in one
     column of a database table to the a sub￾set of another-column.
     (D) None of these
806. Knowledge engineering is
     (A) The process of finding the right formal
     representation of a certain body of
     knowledge in order to represent it in a
     knowledge-based system
     (B) It automatically maps an external signal
     space into a system’s internal
     representational space. They are useful
     in the performance of classification
     tasks.
     (C) A process where an individual learns
     how to carry out a certain task when
     making a transition from a
     situation in which the task cannot be
     carried out to a situation in which the
     same task under the same
     circumstances can be carried out.
     (D) None of these
807. Kohonen self-organizing map referred to
     (A) The process of finding the right formal
     representation of a certain body of
     knowledge in order to represent it in a
     knowledge-based system
     (B) It automatically maps an external signal
     space into a system’s internal
     representational space. They are useful
     in the performance of classification
     tasks
     (C) A process where an individual learns
     how to carry out a certain task when
     making a transition from a
     situation in which the task cannot be
     carried out to a situation in which the
     same task under the same
     circumstances can be carried out.
     (D) None of these
808. Learning is
     (A) The process of finding the right formal
     representation of a certain body of
     knowledge in order to represent it in a
     knowledge-based system
     (B) It automatically maps an external signal
     space into a system’s internal
     representational space. They are useful
     in the performance of classification tasks.
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 121
     (C) A process where an individual learns
     how to carry out a certain task when
     making a transition from a situation in
     which the task cannot be carried out to
     a situation in which the same task under
     the same circumstances can be carried
     out.
     (D) None of these
809. Learning algorithm referrers to
     (A) An algorithm that can learn
     (B) A sub-discipline of computer science
     that deals with the design and
     implementation of learning algorithms.
     (C) A machine-learning approach that
     abstracts from the actual strategy of an
     individual algorithm and can therefore
     be applied to any other form of machine
     learning.
     (D) None of these
810. Meta-learning is
     (A) An algorithm that can learn
     (B) A sub-discipline of computer science
     that deals with the design and
     implementation of learning algorithms.
     (C) A machine-learning approach that
     abstracts from the actual strategy of an
     individual algorithm and can therefore
     be applied to any other form of machine
     learning.
     (D) None of these
811. Machine learning is
     (A) An algorithm that can learn
     (B) A sub-discipline of computer science
     that deals with the design and
     implementation of learning algorithms.
     (C) An approach that abstracts from the
     actual strategy of an individual algorithm
     and can therefore be applied to any other
     form of machine learning.
     (D) None of these
812. Inductive logic programming is
     (A) A class of learning algorithms that try to
     derive a Prolog program from examples*
     (B) A table with n independent attributes can
     be seen as an n- dimensional space.
     (C) A prediction made using an extremely
     simple method, such as always
     predicting the same output.
     (D) None of these
813. Multi-dimensional knowledge is
     (A) A class of learning algorithms that try to
     derive a Prolog program from examples
     (B) A table with n independent attributes can
     be seen as an n- dimensional space
     (C) A prediction made using an extremely
     simple method, such as always
     predicting the same output.
     (D) None of these
814. Naive prediction is
     (A) A class of learning algorithms that try to
     derive a Prolog program from examples
     (B) A table with n independent attributes can
     be seen as an n- dimensional space.
     (C) A prediction made using an extremely
     simple method, such as always
     predicting the same output.
     (D) None of these
815. Knowledge is referred to
     (A) Non-trivial extraction of implicit
     previously unknown and potentially
     useful information from dat(A)
     (B) Set of columns in a database table that
     can be used to identify each record
     within this table uniquely.
     (C) collection of interesting and useful
     patterns in a database
     (D) none of these
816. Node is
     (A) A component of a network
     (B) In the context of KDD and data mining,
     this refers to random errors in a
     database table.
     (C) One of the defining aspects of a data
     warehouse
     (D) None of these
817. Projection pursuit is
     (A) The result of the application of a theory
     or a rule in a specific case
     (B) One of several possible enters within a
     database table that is chosen by the
     designer as the primary means of
     accessing the data in the table.
     (C) Discipline in statistics that studies ways
     to find the most interesting projections
     of multi-dimensional spaces
     (D) None of these
818. Statistical significance is
     (A) The science of collecting, organizing,
     and applying numerical facts
     (B) Measure of the probability that a certain
     hypothesis is incorrect given certain
     observations.
     (C) One of the defining aspects of a data
     warehouse, which is specially built
     around all the existing applications of
     the operational dat(A)
     (D) None of these
     122 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
819. Prediction is
     (A) The result of the application of a theory
     or a rule in a specific case
     (B) One of several possible enters within a
     database table that is chosen by the
     designer as the primary means of
     accessing the data in the table.
     (C) Discipline in statistics that studies ways
     to find the most interesting projections
     of multi-dimensional spaces.
     (D) None of these
820. Primary key is
     (A) The result of the application of a theory
     or a rule in a specific case
     (B) One of several possible enters within a
     database table that is chosen by the
     designer as the primary means of
     accessing the data in the table
     (C) Discipline in statistics that studies ways
     to find the most interesting projections
     of multi-dimensional spaces.
     (D) None of these
821. Noise is
     (A) A component of a network
     (B) In the context of KDD and data mining,
     this refers to random errors in a
     database table.
     (C) One of the defining aspects of a data
     warehouse
     (D) None of these
822. Quadratic complexity is
     (A) A reference to the speed of an algorithm,
     which is quadratically dependent on the
     size of the dat(A)
     (B) Attributes of a database table that can
     take only numerical values.
     (C) Tools designed to query a database.
     (D) None of these
823. Query tools are
     (A) A reference to the speed of an algorithm,
     which is quadratically dependent on the
     size of the dat(A)
     (B) Attributes of a database table that can
     take only numerical values.
     (C) Tools designed to query a database.
     (D) None of these
824. Prolog is
     (A) A programming language based on
     logic
     (B) A computer where each processor has
     its own operating system, its own
     memory, and its own hard disk.
     (C) Describes the structure of the contents
     of a database.
     (D) None of these
825. Massively parallel machine is
     (A) A programming language based on logic
     (B) A computer where each processor has
     its own operating system, its own
     memory, and its own hard disk
     (C) Describes the structure of the contents
     of a database.
     (D) None of these
826. Meta-data is
     (A) A programming language based on
     logic
     (B) A computer where each processor has
     its own operating system, its own
     memory, and its own hard disk.
     (C) Describes the structure of the contents
     of a database
     (D) None of these
827. n(log n) is referred to
     (A) A measure of the desired maximal
     complexity of data mining algorithms
     (B) A database containing volatile data used
     for the daily operation of an organization
     (C) Relational database management
     system
     (D) None of these
828. Operational database is
     (A) A measure of the desired maximal
     complexity of data mining algorithms
     (B) A database containing volatile data used
     for the daily operation of an organization
     (C) Relational database management
     system
     (D) None of these
829. Oracle is referred to
     (A) A measure of the desired maximal
     complexity of data mining algorithms
     (B) A database containing volatile data used
     for the daily operation of an organization
     (C) Relational database management
     system
     (D) None of these
830. Paradigm is
     (A) General class of approaches to a
     problem.
     (B) Performing several computations
     simultaneously.
     (C) Structures in a database those are
     statistically relevant.
     (D) Simple forerunner of modern neural
     networks, without hidden layers.
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 123
831. Patterns is
     (A) General class of approaches to a
     problem.
     (B) Performing several computations
     simultaneously.
     (C) Structures in a database those are
     statistically relevant
     (D) Simple forerunner of modern neural
     networks, without hidden layers.
832. Parallelism is
     (A) General class of approaches to a
     problem.
     (B) Performing several computations
     simultaneously
     (C) Structures in a database those are
     statistically relevant.
     (D) Simple forerunner of modern neural
     networks, without hidden layers.
833. Perceptron is
     (A) General class of approaches to a
     problem.
     (B) Performing several computations
     simultaneously.
     (C) Structures in a database those are
     statistically relevant.
     (D) Simple forerunner of modern neural
     networks, without hidden layers.
834. Shallow knowledge
     (A) The large set of candidate solutions
     possible for a problem
     (B) The information stored in a database
     that can be, retrieved with a single query.
     (C) Worth of the output of a machine￾learning program that makes it under￾standable for humans
     (D) None of these
835. Statistics
     (A) The science of collecting, organizing,
     and applying numerical facts
     (B) Measure of the probability that a certain
     hypothesis is incorrect given certain
     observations.
     (C) One of the defining aspects of a data
     warehouse, which is specially built
     around all the existing applications of
     the operational dat(A)
     (D) None of these
836. Subject orientation
     (A) The science of collecting, organizing,
     and applying numerical facts
     (B) Measure of the probability that a certain
     hypothesis is incorrect given certain
     observations.
     (C) One of the defining aspects of a data
     warehouse, which is specially built
     around all the existing applications of
     the operational dat(A)
     (D) None of these
837. Search space
     (A) The large set of candidate solutions
     possible for a problem
     (B) The information stored in a database
     that can be, retrieved with a single query.
     (C) Worth of the output of a machine￾learning program that makes it
     understandable for humans
     (D) None of these
838. Transparency
     (A) The large set of candidate solutions
     possible for a problem
     (B) The information stored in a database
     that can be, retrieved with a single query.
     (C) Worth of the output of a machine￾learning program that makes it under￾standable for humans
     (D) None of these
839. Quantitative attributes are
     (A) A reference to the speed of an algorithm,
     which is quadratically dependent on the
     size of the dat(A)
     (B) Attributes of a database table that can
     take only numerical values.
     (C) Tools designed to query a database.
     (D) None of these
840. Unsupervised algorithms
     (A) It do not need the control of the human
     operator during their execution.
     (B) An arrow in a multi-dimensional space.
     It is a quantity usually characterized by
     an ordered set of scalars.
     (C) The validation of a theory on the basis
     of a finite number of examples.
     (D) None of these
841. Vector
     (A) It do not need the control of the human
     operator during their execution.
     (B) An arrow in a multi-dimensional space.
     It is a quantity usually characterized by
     an ordered set of scalars.
     (C) The validation of a theory on the basis
     of a finite number of examples.
     (D) None of these
     124 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
842. Verification
     (A) It does not need the control of the
     human operator during their execution.
     (B) An arrow in a multi-dimensional space.
     It is a quantity usually characterized by
     an ordered set of scalars.
     (C) The validation of a theory on the basis
     of a finite number of examples
     (D) None of these
843. Visualization techniques are
     (A) A class of graphic techniques used to
     visualize the contents of a database
     (B) The division of a certain space into
     various areas based on guide points.
     (C) A branch that connects one node to
     another
     (D) None of these
844. Voronoi diagram
     (A) A class of graphic techniques used to
     visualize the contents of a database
     (B) The division of a certain space into
     various areas based on guide points.
     (C) A branch that connects one node to
     another
     (D) None of these
845. Synapse is
     (A) A class of graphic techniques used to
     visualize the contents of a database
     (B) The division of a certain space into
     various areas based on guide points.
     (C) A branch that connects one node to
     another
     (D) None of these
     Answer Sheet
846. (A) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (A)
847. (B) 7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (C)
848. (C) 12. (A) 13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (A)
849. (B) 17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (A) 20. (B)
850. (C) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (C) 25. (A)
851. (B) 27. (C) 28. (B) 29. (A) 30. (B)
852. (C) 32. (A) 33. (B) 34. (C) 35. (A)
853. (B) 37. (C) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40. (C)
854. (A) 42. (B) 43. (C) 44. (A) 45. (B)
855. (C) 47. (A) 48. (B) 49. (A) 50. (C)
856. (A) 52. (B) 53. (C) 54. (B) 55. (A)
857. (B) 57. (C) 58. (A) 59. (C) 60. (B)
858. (A) 62. (B) 63. (C) 64. (C) 65. (A)
859. (C) 67. (B) 68. (A) 69. (B) 70. (B)
860. (A) 72. (C) 73. (A) 74. (B) 75. (C)
861. (A) 77. (B) 78. (C) 79. (A) 80. (C)
862. (B) 82. (D) 83. (B) 84. (A) 85. (C)
863. (A) 87. (C) 88. (B) 89. (A) 90. (B)
864. (C) 92. (A) 93. (B) 94. (C)
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 125
     ELECTRONICS DATA PROCESSING
865. The computers communicate by sending
     each other small ————of data
     (A) Packets (B) Bags
     (C) Bunch (D) None of these
866. Every computer in the network can
     communicate
     (A) directly with every other computer in the
     network
     (B) indirectly with other computer in the
     network
     (C) only to some computers in network
     (D) none of these
867. Every computer in a network has a network
     address, often called a
     (A) hardware address
     (B) software address
     (C) computer address
     (D) none of these
868. A computer can be joined to more than one
     network through
     (A) Gateways (B) Passages
     (C) Connector (D) None of these
869. The examples of TCP/IP are
     (A) HTTP (Hyper-Text Transfer Protocol)
     (B) FTP (File Tranfer Protocol),
     (C) SSH (Secure SHell)
     (D) All the above
870. It refers to a particular family of standards for
     expressing the structured data that represent
     electronic commerce transactions; and
     ‘electronic auctions for a particular set of
     mechanisms for setting prices.
     (A) Electronic data interchange (EDI)
     (B) Electronic Publishing
     (C) Electronic Services Delivery (ES(D)
     (D) None of these
871. Electronic Business referred to
     (A) The conduct of business with the
     assistance of telecommunications and
     telecommunications-based tools
     (B) The conduct of commerce in goods and
     services, with the assistance of
     telecommunications and telecommuni￾cations-based tools
     (C) It refers to means whereby sellers can
     communicate their offerings to potential
     buyers.
     (D) None of these
872. Electronic Commerce referred to
     (A) The conduct of business with the
     assistance of telecommunications and
     telecommunications-based tools
     (B) The conduct of commerce in goods and
     services, with the assistance of
     telecommunications and telecommuni￾cations-based tools
     (C) It refers to means whereby sellers can
     communicate their offerings to potential
     buyers.
     (D) None of these
873. Electronic catalogues referred to
     (A) The conduct of business with the
     assistance of telecommunications and
     telecommunications-based tools
     (B) The conduct of commerce in goods and
     services, with the assistance of
     telecommunications and telecommuni￾cations-based tools
     (C) It refers to means whereby sellers can
     communicate their offerings to potential
     buyers
     (D) None of these
874. It is an electronic commerce in digital goods
     and services, intended for consumption by
     the human senses. It encompasses a
     range of formats, including text, structured
     data, image, raster/bit-map and vector,
     moving image (animation and video), sound,
     and combinations of the above (multi￾medi(A).
     (A) Electronic data interchange (EDI)
     (B) Electronic Publishing
     (C) Electronic Services Delivery (ESD)
     (D) None of these
     126 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
875. It is an electronic commerce in services, i.e.
     the provision of services with the assistance
     of telecommunications and telecommunica￾tions-based tools. It excludes traffic in
     physical goods, and hence is concerned with
     applications of electronic business where,
     at least in principle, the entire activity can be
     performed electronically.
     (A) Electronic data interchange (EDI)
     (B) Electronic Publishing
     (C) Electronic Services Delivery (ES(D)
     (D) None of these
876. In The Pre-Contractual Phase
     (A) the buyer and seller are concerned with
     the gathering of market intelligence
     (B) a formal relationship is established
     between buyer and seller, including
     terms and conditions to be applied to
     transactions under the contract.
     (C) this involves the placement and
     processing of purchase orders (or, in
     contractual terms, an offer), and
     acknowledgement by the seller of its
     preparedness to deliver (in contractual
     terms, an acceptance).
     (D) deals with the delivery of goods and/or
     the performance of services. In addition,
     some post-delivery functions may be
     involved, in particular inspection, and
     acceptance or rejection.
877. In Contractual Phase
     (A) the buyer and seller are concerned with
     the gathering of market intelligence.
     (B) a formal relationship is established
     between buyer and seller, including
     terms and conditions to be applied to
     transactions under the contract.
     (C) this involves the placement and
     processing of purchase orders (or, in
     contractual terms, an offer), and
     acknowledgement by the seller of its
     preparedness to deliver (in contractual
     terms, an acceptance).
     (D) deals with the delivery of goods and/or
     the performance of services. In addition,
     some post-delivery functions may be
     involved, in particular inspection, and
     acceptance or rejection.
878. A physical item is one which may be delivered
     or performed
     (A) entirely through a telecommunications
     network
     (B) involves logistical activities such as the
     transportation of goods, or of the person
     and/or facilities whereby the service will
     be performed
879. In Ordering Phase
     (A) the buyer and seller are concerned with
     the gathering of market intelligence.
     (B) a formal relationship is established
     between buyer and seller, including
     terms and conditions to be applied to
     transactions under the contract.
     (C) this involves the placement and
     processing of purchase orders (or, in
     contractual terms, an offer), and
     acknowledgement by the seller of its
     preparedness to deliver (in contractual
     terms, an acceptance).
     (D) deals with the delivery of goods and/or
     the performance of services. In addition,
     some post-delivery functions may be
     involved, in particular inspection, and
     acceptance or rejection.
880. Services are referred as
     (A) an identifiable physical entity
     (B) an act, which is ‘performed’.
     (C) (A) and (B) both false
     (D) (A) and (B) both true
881. In Logistics Phase
     (A) the buyer and seller are concerned with
     the gathering of market intelligence.
     (B) a formal relationship is established
     between buyer and seller, including
     terms and conditions to be applied to
     transactions under the contract.
     (C) this involves the placement and
     processing of purchase orders (or, in
     contractual terms, an offer), and
     acknowledgement by the seller of its
     preparedness to deliver (in contractual
     terms, an acceptance).
     (D) deals with the delivery of goods and/or
     the performance of services. In addition,
     some post-delivery functions may be
     involved, in particular inspection, and
     acceptance or rejection.
882. In Settlement Phase
     (A) the goods or services are paid for.
     Relevant transactions include invoicing,
     payment authorisation, payment, and
     remittance advice transmission.
     (B) the buyer and seller are concerned with
     the gathering of market intelligence.
     (C) a formal relationship is established
     between buyer and seller, including
     terms and conditions to be applied to
     transactions under the contract.
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 127
     (D) this involves the placement and
     processing of purchase orders (or, in
     contractual terms, an offer), and
     acknowledgement by the seller of its
     preparedness to deliver (in contractual
     terms, an acceptance).
883. Goods are referred as
     (A) an identifiable physical entity
     (B) an act, which is ‘performed’
     (C) (A) and (B) both true
     (D) None is true
884. A digital item is one which may be delivered
     or performed
     (A) entirely through a telecommunications
     network
     (B) involves logistical activities such as the
     transportation of goods, or of the person
     and/or facilities whereby the service will
     be performed
     (C) (A) and (B) both false
     (D) None is true
885. An audio-CD is
     (A) a physical good
     (B) a digital good
     (C) (A) is false, (B) is true
     (D) (A) and (B) both true
886. An audio-file downloaded over the Internet
     is
     (A) a physical good
     (B) a digital good
     (C) (A) is true, (B) is false
     (D) (A) and (B) both true
     Answer Sheet
887. (A) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (A) 5. (D)
888. (A) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (B)
889. (C) 12. (A) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (C)
890. (B) 17. (D) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (A)
891. (A) 22. (B)
     128 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
     PARALLEL COMPUTING
892. It is the simultaneous use of multiple
     compute resources to solve a computational
     problem
     (A) Parallel computing
     (B) Single processing
     (C) Sequential computing
     (D) None of these
893. Parallel Execution
     (A) A sequential execution of a program,
     one statement at a time
     (B) Execution of a program by more than
     one task, with each task being able to
     execute the same or different statement
     at the same moment in time
     (C) A program or set of instructions that is
     executed by a processor.
     (D) None of these
894. Scalability refers to a parallel system’s
     (hardware and/or software) ability
     (A) To demonstrate a proportionate
     increase in parallel speedup with the
     removal of some processors
     (B) To demonstrate a proportionate
     increase in parallel speedup with the
     addition of more processors
     (C) To demonstrate a proportionate
     decrease in parallel speedup with the
     addition of more processors
     (D) None of these
895. Parallel computing can include
     (A) Single computer with multiple
     processors
     (B) Arbitrary number of computers connec￾ted by a network
     (C) Combination of both A and B
     (D) None of these
896. Serial Execution
     (A) A sequential execution of a program,
     one statement at a time
     (B) Execution of a program by more than
     one task, with each task being able to
     execute the same or different statement
     at the same moment in time
     (C) A program or set of instructions that is
     executed by a processor.
     (D) None of these
897. Shared Memory is
     (A) A computer architecture where all
     processors have direct access to
     common physical memory
     (B) It refers to network based memory
     access for physical memory that is not
     common.
     (C) Parallel tasks typically need to exchange
     dat(A) There are several ways this can
     be accomplished, such as through, a
     shared memory bus or over a network,
     however the actual event of data
     exchange is commonly referred to as
     communications regardless of the
     method employe(D)
     (D) None of these
898. Distributed Memory
     (A) A computer architecture where all
     processors have direct access to
     common physical memory
     (B) It refers to network based memory
     access for physical memory that is not
     common
     (C) Parallel tasks typically need to exchange
     dat(A) There are several ways this can
     be accomplished, such as through, a
     shared memory bus or over a network,
     however the actual event of data
     exchange is commonly referred to as
     communications regardless of the
     method employe(D)
     (D) None of these
899. Parallel Overhead is
     (A) Observed speedup of a code which has
     been parallelized, defined as: wall-clock
     time of serial execution and wall-clock
     time of parallel execution
     (B) The amount of time required to coordi￾nate parallel tasks. It includes factors
     such as: Task start-up time, Synchro￾nizations, Data communications.
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 129
     (C) Refers to the hardware that comprises
     a given parallel system – having many
     processors
     (D) None of these
900. Massively Parallel
     (A) Observed speedup of a code which has
     been parallelized, defined as: wall-clock
     time of serial execution and wall-clock
     time of parallel execution
     (B) The amount of time required to coordinate
     parallel tasks. It includes factors such as:
     Task start-up time, Synchronizations, Data
     communications.
     (C) Refers to the hardware that comprises
     a given parallel system – having many
     processors
     (D) None of these
901. Fine-grain Parallelism is
     (A) In parallel computing, it is a qualitative
     measure of the ratio of computation
     to communication
     (B) Here relatively small amounts of
     computational work are done between
     communication events
     (C) Relatively large amounts of
     computational work are done
     between communication / synchroni￾zation events
     (D) None of these
902. In shared Memory
     (A) Changes in a memory location effected
     by one processor do not affect all other
     processors.
     (B) Changes in a memory location effected
     by one processor are visible to all other
     processors
     (C) Changes in a memory location effected
     by one processor are randomly visible
     to all other processors.
     (D) None of these
903. In shared Memory:
     (A) Here all processors access, all memory
     as global address space
     (B) Here all processors have individual
     memory
     (C) Here some processors access, all
     memory as global address space and
     some not
     (D) None of these
904. In shared Memory
     (A) Multiple processors can operate
     independently but share the same
     memory resources
     (B) Multiple processors can operate
     independently but do not share the
     same memory resources
     (C) Multiple processors can operate
     independently but some do not share
     the same memory resources
     (D) None of these
905. In designing a parallel program, one has
     to break the problem into discreet chunks
     of work that can be distributed to multiple
     tasks. This is known as
     (A) Decomposition (B) Partitioning
     (C) Compounding (D) Both A and B
906. Latency is
     (A) Partitioning in that the data associated
     with a problem is decompose(D) Each
     parallel task then works on a portion of
     the dat(A)
     (B) Partitioning in that, the focus is on the
     computation that is to be performed
     rather than on the data manipulated by
     the computation. The problem is
     decomposed according to the work that
     must be done. Each task then performs
     a portion of the overall work.
     (C) It is the time it takes to send a minimal
     (0 byte) message from one point to
     other point
     (D) None of these
907. Domain Decomposition
     (A) Partitioning in that the data associated
     with a problem is decompose(D) Each
     parallel task then works on a portion of
     the dat(A)
     (B) Partitioning in that, the focus is on the
     computation that is to be performed
     rather than on the data manipulated by
     the computation. The problem is
     decomposed according to the work that
     must be done. Each task then performs
     a portion of the overall work.
     (C) It is the time it takes to send a minimal (0
     byte) message from point A to point (B)
     (D) None of these
908. Functional Decomposition:
     (A) Partitioning in that the data associated
     with a problem is decompose(D) Each
     parallel task then works on a portion of
     the dat(A)
     (B) Partitioning in that, the focus is on the
     computation that is to be performed
     rather than on the data manipulated by
     the computation. The problem is
     decomposed according to the work that
     must be done. Each task then performs
     a portion of the overall work.
     130 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
     (C) It is the time it takes to send a minimal (0
     byte) message from point A to point (B)
     (D) None of these
909. Synchronous communications
     (A) It require some type of “handshaking”
     between tasks that are sharing dat(A)
     This can be explicitly structured in code
     by the programmer, or it may happen at
     a lower level unknown to the pro￾grammer.
     (B) It involves data sharing between more
     than two tasks, which are often specified
     as being members in a common group,
     or collective.
     (C) It involves two tasks with one task acting
     as the sender/producer of data, and the
     other acting as the receiver/consumer.
     (D) It allows tasks to transfer data
     independently from one another.
910. Collective communication
     (A) It involves data sharing between more
     than two tasks, which are often specified
     as being members in a common group,
     or collective.
     (B) It involves two tasks with one task acting
     as the sender/producer of data, and the
     other acting as the receiver/consumer.
     (C) It allows tasks to transfer data
     independently from one another.
     (D) None of these
911. Point-to-point communication referred to
     (A) It involves data sharing between more
     than two tasks, which are often specified
     as being members in a common group,
     or collective.
     (B) It involves two tasks with one task acting
     as the sender/producer of data, and the
     other acting as the receiver/consumer.*
     (C) It allows tasks to transfer data
     independently from one another.
     (D) None of these
912. Uniform Memory Access (UMA) referred to
     (A) Here all processors have equal
     access and access times to memory
     (B) Here if one processor updates a
     location in shared memory, all the
     other processors know about the
     update.
     (C) Here one SMP can directly access
     memory of another SMP and not all
     processors have equal access time
     to all memories
     (D) None of these
913. Asynchronous communications
     (A) It involves data sharing between more
     than two tasks, which are often specified
     as being members in a common group,
     or collective.
     (B) It involves two tasks with one task acting
     as the sender/producer of data, and the
     other acting as the receiver/consumer.
     (C) It allows tasks to transfer data
     independently from one another.
     (D) None of these
914. Granularity is
     (A) In parallel computing, it is a qualitative
     measure of the ratio of computation
     to communication
     (B) Here relatively small amounts of
     computational work are done
     between communication events
     (C) Relatively large amounts of computa￾tional work are done between
     communication / synchronization
     events
     (D) None of these
915. Coarse-grain Parallelism
     (A) In parallel computing, it is a qualitative
     measure of the ratio of computation
     to communication
     (B) Here relatively small amounts of
     computational work are done between
     communication events
     (C) Relatively large amounts of computa￾tional work are done between
     communication / synchronization
     events
     (D) None of these
916. Cache Coherent UMA (CC-UMA) is
     (A) Here all processors have equal
     access and access times to memory
     (B) Here if one processor updates a
     location in shared memory, all the
     other processors know about the
     update.
     (C) Here one SMP can directly access
     memory of another SMP and not all
     processors have equal access time
     to all memories
     (D) None of these
917. Non-Uniform Memory Access (NUMA) is
     (A) Here all processors have equal
     access and access times to memory
     (B) Here if one processor updates a
     location in shared memory, all the
     other processors know about the
     update.
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 131
     (C) Here one SMP can directly access
     memory of another SMP and not all
     processors have equal access time
     to all memories
     (D) None of these
918. It distinguishes multi-processor computer
     architectures according to how they can be
     classified along the two independent
     dimensions of Instruction and Dat(A) Each
     of these dimensions can have only one of
     two possible states: Single or Multiple.
     (A) Single Program Multiple Data (SPMD)
     (B) Flynn’s taxonomy
     (C) Von Neumann Architecture
     (D) None of these
919. In the threads model of parallel
     programming
     (A) A single process can have multiple,
     concurrent execution paths
     (B) A single process can have single,
     concurrent execution paths.
     (C) A multiple process can have single
     concurrent execution paths.
     (D) None of these
920. These applications typically have multiple
     executable object files (programs). While the
     application is being run in parallel, each task
     can be executing the same or different
     program as other tasks. All tasks may use
     different data
     (A) Single Program Multiple Data (SPMD)
     (B) Multiple Program Multiple Data (MPMD)
     (C) Von Neumann Architecture
     (D) None of these
921. Here a single program is executed by all
     tasks simultaneously. At any moment in time,
     tasks can be executing the same or different
     instructions within the same program. These
     programs usually have the necessary logic
     programmed into them to allow different
     tasks to branch or conditionally execute only
     those parts of the program they are designed
     to execute.
     (A) Single Program Multiple Data (SPMD)
     (B) Multiple Program Multiple Data (MPMD)
     (C) Von Neumann Architecture
     (D) None of these
922. These computer uses the stored-program
     concept. Memory is used to store both
     program and data instructions and central
     processing unit (CPU) gets instructions and/
     or data from memory. CPU, decodes the
     instructions and then sequentially performs
     them.
     (A) Single Program Multiple Data (SPMD)
     (B) Flynn’s taxonomy
     (C) Von Neumann Architecture
     (D) None of these
923. Load balancing is
     (A) Involves only those tasks executing a
     communication operation
     (B) It exists between program statements
     when the order of statement execution
     affects the results of the program.
     (C) It refers to the practice of distributing
     work among tasks so that all tasks are
     kept busy all of the time. It can be
     considered as minimization of task idle
     time.
     (D) None of these
924. Synchronous communication operations
     referred to
     (A) Involves only those tasks executing a
     communication operation
     (B) It exists between program statements
     when the order of statement execution
     affects the results of the program.
     (C) It refers to the practice of distributing
     work among tasks so that all tasks are
     kept busy all of the time. It can be
     considered as minimization of task idle
     time.
     (D) None of these
925. Data dependence is
     (A) Involves only those tasks executing a
     communication operation
     (B) It exists between program statements
     when the order of statement execution
     affects the results of the program.
     (C) It refers to the practice of distributing
     work among tasks so that all tasks are
     kept busy all of the time. It can be
     considered as minimization of task idle
     time.
     (D) None of these
     Answer Sheet
926. (A) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (A)
927. (A) 7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (B)
928. (B) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (C)
929. (A) 17. (B) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (B)
930. (A) 22. (C) 23. (A) 24. (C) 25. (B)
931. (C) 27. (B) 28. (A) 29. (B) 30. (A)
932. (C) 32. (C) 33. (A) 34. (B)
     132 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
     WINDOW PROGRAMMING
933. Frames is
     (A) the exterior of a window.
     (B) the interior of a frame window.
     (C) windows used for input/output that are
     placed on a panel window
     (D) None of these
934. Panels is
     (A) the exterior of a window.
     (B) the interior of a frame window
     (C) windows used for input/output that are
     placed on a panel window
     (D) None of these
935. Controls are
     (A) the exterior of a window.
     (B) the interior of a frame window.
     (C) windows used for input/output that are
     placed on a panel window
     (D) None of these
936. In frame windows
     (A) One can put another frame windows
     (B) One can not put another frame windows
937. A panel window is a window
     (A) which can only exist inside a frame win￾dow
     (B) which can not exist inside a frame win￾dow
     (C) which can exist outside the frame win￾dow
     (D) none of these
938. These exist ——— panel windows inside
     the same frame window.
     (A) Several (B) Only one
     (C) None (D) None of these
939. Button in window programming
     (A) displays text and can be clicked with the
     mouse or spacebar
     (B) a checkmark which the user can select
     (C) a list from which one item can be se￾lected.
     (D) area in which text may be entered.
940. Checkbox in window programming
     (A) displays text and can be clicked with the
     mouse or spacebar
     (B) a checkmark which the user can select
     (C) a list from which one item can be se￾lected.
     (D) area in which text may be entered.
941. Combobox in window programming
     (A) displays text and can be clicked with the
     mouse or spacebar
     (B) a checkmark which the user can select
     (C) a list from which one item can be se￾lected.
     (D) area in which text may be entered.
942. Edit in window programming
     (A) displays text and can be clicked with the
     mouse or spacebar
     (B) a checkmark which the user can select
     (C) a list from which one item can be se￾lected.
     (D) area in which text may be entered
943. Groupbox in window programming
     (A) does nothing except draw a rectangle, it
     is used to visually group controls to￾gether
     (B) displays text
     (C) for input of multiple lines of text
     (D) none of these
944. Label in window programming
     (A) does nothing except draw a rectangle, it
     is used to visually group controls to￾gether
     (B) displays text
     (C) for input of multiple lines of text
     (D) none of these
945. Memo in window programming
     (A) does nothing except draw a rectangle, it
     is used to visually group controls to￾gether
     (B) displays text
     (C) for input of multiple lines of text
     (D) none of these
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 133
946. All the classes necessary for Windows pro￾gramming are in the module
     (A) win.txt (B) win.std
     (C) win.main (D) none of these
947. Window class, onCreate/1 ,defines
     (A) is executed when a visible window is
     being created
     (B) is executed when a window is being
     closed, it is possible to prevent the win￾dow from closing
     (C) when the background of a window must
     be erased this event is executed
     (D) when a window must be re-painted this
     event is executed
948. Window class, on Close/2
     (A) is executed when a visible window is
     being created
     (B) is executed when a window is being
     closed, it is possible to prevent the win￾dow from closing
     (C) when the background of a window must
     be erased this event is executed
     (D) when a window must be re-painted this
     event is executed
949. Window class, onEraseBackground/1, de￾fines
     (A) is executed when a visible window is
     being created
     (B) is executed when a window is being
     closed, it is possible to prevent the win￾dow from closing
     (C) when the background of a window must
     be erased this event is executed
     (D) when a window must be re-painted this
     event is executed
950. Window class, onPaint/2, defines
     (A) is executed when a visible window is
     being created
     (B) is executed when a window is being
     closed, it is possible to prevent the win￾dow from closing
     (C) when the background of a window must
     be erased this event is executed
     (D) when a window must be re-painted this
     event is executed
951. Window class, onShow/2, defines
     (A) is executed when a window is becom￾ing visible or is being hidden
     (B) when a window is being disabled or en￾abled this event is executed
     (C) this event is executed when the user
     switches to another window of the same
     application
     (D) when a window receives the keyboard
     focus this event is executed
952. Window class, onActivate/2, defines
     (A) is executed when a window is becom￾ing visible or is being hidden
     (B) when a window is being disabled or en￾abled this event is executed
     (C) this event is executed when the user
     switches to another window of the same
     application
     (D) when a window receives the keyboard
     focus this event is executed
953. Window class, onEnable/1, defines
     (A) is executed when a window is becom￾ing visible or is being hidden
     (B) when a window is being disabled or en￾abled this event is executed
     (C) this event is executed when the user
     switches to another window of the same
     application
     (D) when a window receives the keyboard
     focus this event is executed
954. Window class, onKBFocus/3, defines
     (A) is executed when a window is becom￾ing visible or is being hidden
     (B) when a window is being disabled or en￾abled this event is executed
     (C) this event is executed when the user
     switches to another window of the same
     application
     (D) when a window receives the keyboard
     focus this event is executed
955. Window class, onSetCursor/3, defines
     (A) the window wants to know what cursor
     it must display for the mouse pointer
     (B) the mouse is moved over a window
     (C) when a mouse button is pressed this
     event is executed
     (D) a mouse button is released
956. Window class, onMouseMove/5 , defines
     (A) the window wants to know what cursor
     it must display for the mouse pointer
     (B) the mouse is moved over a window
     (C) when a mouse button is pressed this
     event is executed
     (D) a mouse button is released
957. Window class, onMouseDown/5, defines
     (A) the window wants to know what cursor
     it must display for the mouse pointer
     (B) the mouse is moved over a window
     (C) when a mouse button is pressed this
     event is executed
     (D) a mouse button is released
     134 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
958. Window class, onMouseUp/5 , defines
     (A) the window wants to know what cursor
     it must display for the mouse pointer
     (B) the mouse is moved over a window
     (C) when a mouse button is pressed this
     event is executed
     (D) a mouse button is released
959. Window class, onMouseDoubleClick/5, de￾fines
     (A) a mouse button was double clicked
     (B) the user clicks on a window
     (C) a key on the keyboard is pressed
     (D) a key on the keyboard is released
960. Window class, onClick/1, defines
     (A) a mouse button was double clicked
     (B) the user clicks on a window
     (C) a key on the keyboard is pressed
     (D) a key on the keyboard is released
961. Window class, onKeyDown/3 , defines
     (A) a mouse button was double clicked
     (B) the user clicks on a window
     (C) a key on the keyboard is pressed
     (D) a key on the keyboard is released
962. Window class, onKeyUp/3, defines
     (A) a key on the keyboard is pressed
     (B) a key on the keyboard is released
     (C) a mouse button was double clicked
     (D) the user clicks on a window
963. Window class, onChar/3, defines
     (A) during the processing of a key this event
     is executed with the ASCII value of the
     key pressed
     (B) a menu command was selected
     (C) a menu item is selected
     (D) a window was resized
964. Window class, onCommand/2, defines
     (A) during the processing of a key this event
     is executed with the ASCII value of the
     key pressed
     (B) a menu command was selected
     (C) a menu item is selected
     (D) a window was resized
965. Window class, onMenuSelect/2, defines
     (A) during the processing of a key this event
     is executed with the ASCII value of the
     key pressed
     (B) a menu command was selected
     (C) a menu item is selected
     (D) a window was resized
966. Window class, onSize/2, defines
     (A) during the processing of a key this event
     is executed with the ASCII value of the
     key pressed
     (B) a menu command was selected
     (C) a menu item is selected
     (D) a window was resized
967. Window class, onMove/2, defines
     (A) a window is moved to a new position
     (B) the user wants to view a floating popup
     menu for the window
     (C) an event from the vertical scrollbar of
     the window
     (D) an event from the horizontal scrollbar of
     the window
968. Window class, onInitPopupMenu/2, defines
     (A) a window is moved to a new position
     (B) the user wants to view a floating popup
     menu for the window
     (C) an event from the vertical scrollbar of
     the window
     (D) an event from the horizontal scrollbar of
     the window
969. Window class, onVScroll/3, defines
     (A) a window is moved to a new position
     (B) the user wants to view a floating popup
     menu for the window
     (C) an event from the vertical scrollbar of
     the window
     (D) an event from the horizontal scrollbar of
     the window
970. Window class, onHScroll/3, defines
     (A) a window is moved to a new position
     (B) the user wants to view a floating popup
     menu for the window
     (C) an event from the vertical scrollbar of
     the window
     (D) an event from the horizontal scrollbar of
     the window
971. SizerClient in window programming ?
     (A) this type of sizer ensures that a panel
     window fills the complete client rect￾angle of a frame window
     (B) this sizer class makes a panel ‘stick’ to
     one side of a frame window and the
     size of the panel window is a fixed num￾ber of pixels.
     (C) this sizer ensures that a panel window
     is percentage of the size of a frame win￾dow.
     (D) None of these
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 135
972. SizerFixed in window programming
     (A) this type of sizer ensures that a panel
     window fills the complete client rect￾angle of a frame window
     (B) this sizer class makes a panel ‘stick’ to
     one side of a frame window and the
     size of the panel window is a fixed num￾ber of pixels
     (C) this sizer ensures that a panel window
     is percentage of the size of a frame win￾dow.
     (D) None of these
973. SizerPercent in window programming
     (A) this type of sizer ensures that a panel
     window fills the complete client rect￾angle of a frame window
     (B) this sizer class makes a panel ‘stick’ to
     one side of a frame window and the
     size of the panel window is a fixed num￾ber of pixels.
     (C) this sizer ensures that a panel window
     is percentage of the size of a frame win￾dow.
     (D) None of these
     Answer Sheet
974. (A) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (A)
975. (A) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (D)
976. (A) 12. (B) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (A)
977. (B) 17. (C) 18. (D) 19. (A) 20. (C)
978. (B) 22. (D) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (C)
979. (D) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (C) 30. (B)
980. (A) 32. (B) 33. (C) 34. (D) 35. (A)
981. (B) 37. (C) 38. (D) 39. (A) 40. (B)
982. (C)
     136 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
     DATA BASE MANAGEMENT
     SYSTEM (DBMS)
983. The following term applies to a collection of
     related records in a database
     (A) File (B) Layout
     (C) File (D) Field
984. This set of related data items is known as a
     (A) File (B) Record
     (C) Table (D) None of the above
985. The framework for storing records in
     database is a
     (A) Form (B) Report
     (C) Query (D) Table
986. The following command is used to search
     the record that satisfies the specified criteria
     (A) FOUND (B) SEARCH
     (C) GET (D) LOCATE
987. The data in a record is of the following types
     (A) four text fields and three numeric fields
     (B) two integer fields and five text fields
     (C) three text fields and four numeric fields
     (D) none of the above
988. A treelike structure of records in a database.
     Select the best fit for answer
     (A) Hierarchical database structure
     (B) Relational database structure
     (C) Multidimensional database structure
     (D) Sequential database access
989. The following language used by most of the
     DBMSs for helping their users to access
     data
     (A) High level language
     (B) Query language
     (C) SQL
     (D) 4GL
990. What is a largest collection of data stored in
     a computer? You might use this type of
     program to keep a record of all the friends in
     your address book.
     (A) Information Processing
     (B) Spreadsheet
     (C) Operating system
     (D) Database
991. Which command is used to replace ?
     (A) REPLACE
     (B) REPLACE ALL
     (C) Add record from edit menu
     (D) All of above
992. The following part of a database that holds
     only one type of information
     (A) Report (B) Query
     (C) Record (D) Field
993. All of the following terms are related to
     computerized databases except which one?
     (A) Search (B) Sort
     (C) Field names (D) Record grab
994. Need to see all the information from two
     tables on one form. Insert
     (A) A page break
     (B) A subform
     (C) A linked command button
     (D) None of the above
995. What is the primary difference between a pivot
     table report and a cross tab query?
     (A) A pivot table report can contain sums,
     counts, and averages while a cross tab
     query cannot.
     (B) You can’t pivot a cross tab query
     (C) A cross tab query lets you group similar
     items. A pitot table report does not
     (D) None of above
996. The largest unit of a database is
     (A) A record (B) A field
     (C) A subfield (D) None of above
997. What’s the best Access object for an invoice
     you’ll mail to customers?
     (A) A report (B) A form
     (C) A table (D) All of the above
998. What is a Grouped Report?
     (A) A type of report that can be generated by
     the Report Wizard
     (B) A report that displays data that has been
     sorted in ascending or descending order
     M.C.Qs. on Computer | 137
     (C) A report that displays data grouped by
     fields you specify
     (D) None
999. Which field allow to select items from drop
     down list?
     (A) An OLE field (B) A Memo Field
     (C) A lookup Field (D) A hyperlink field
1000. What did the first Table Analyzer do?
      (A) Analyze the data in a set of flat files and
      automatically create a relational
      database system from that information
      (B) Provide a graphic way to design
      relational databases
      (C) Automate process of connecting tables
      to SQL Server
      (D) None
1001. Pivot Table reports are good for
      (A) Analyzing large amounts of data
      (B) Turning tables upside down
      (C) Breaking spreadsheet data into multiple
      worksheet
      (D) None of above
1002. Which of the following are common ways to
      enforce data validation when entering data
      into an Access form?
      (A) Create an input mask to restrict the kind
      of value that can be entered in positions
      across the field.
      (B) Define a validation rule for that field
      (C) A and B
      (D) none of the above
1003. The purpose of the Add-in Manager is to
      (A) Create macros and automate data
      processing
      (B) Add or remove data in an existing
      database
      (C) Add or remove templates, macros, and
      wizards
      (D) All of above
1004. Sub-schema can be used to
      (A) Create very different, personalized views
      of the same data
      (B) Present information in different formats
      (C) Hide sensitive information by omitting
      fields from the subschema’s description
      (D) All of the above
1005. If you are entering data in a form, a quick way
      to cpy a value from the previous record is to
      press
      (A) Ctrl+’ (B) F6
      (C) Ctrl+D (D) None of the above
1006. DBMS is
      (A) Collection of data
      (B) Set of programs to access those data
      (C) Set of programs to update those data
      (D) All of the above
1007. COPY STRUCTURE command is used to
      (A) Copy contents of an active database to
      a new file
      (B) Copy all records of an active database
      to disk
      (C) Copy contents of an active database to
      disk
      (D) Copy structure of an active database to
      a new file
1008. COUNT command is used to
      (A) Count the number of data fields in an
      active database file
      (B) Count the number of data files which
      are active
      (C) Count the records which are updated
      (D) Count the number of records in an active
      database file
1009. What is the term to ask the computer to pt
      information in order numerically or
      alphabetically ?
      (A) Crop (B) Report
      (C) Sort (D) Organize
1010. The raw facts are called
      (A) Data (B) Programs
      (C) Commands (D) Responses
1011. The term refers to a collection of related
      information
      (A) Database (B) List
      (C) Outline (D) Record
1012. A form that is used to collect data in a
      structured manner for entry to a database is
      called a
      (A) Database deign form
      (B) Systems flowchart
      (C) Data capture form
      (D) None of above
1013. The following command is used for inserting
      records
      (A) INSERT
      (B) ADD
      (C) Both of the above
      (D) None of the above
1014. The Query is a statement requesting for
      (A) Insertion of information
      (B) Deletion of information
      (C) Update of information
      (D) Retrieval of information
      138 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
1015. The activity of a file
      (A) Is a low percentages of number of
      records added or deleted from a file
      (B) If high, reduces processing efficiency for
      sequential and non sequential files
      (C) Is a measure of the percentage of
      existing records updated during a run
      (D) Refers to how closely the files fit into the
      allocated
1016. The following statement is not valid about
      indexing
      (A) it stores the index fields
      (B) it stores the corresponding record
      number
      (C) it maintains the alphabetically order
      (D) it duplicate the database file
1017. The following devices can be used to input
      data into a database
      (A) Keyboard, fax roller ball
      (B) Mouse, keyboard, monitor
      (C) Mouse, keyboard, touch screen
      (D) None of the above
1018. The following command is used for sorting
      (A) list (B) browse
      (C) index (D) sort
1019. List command is used to get
      (A) List of database contents
      (B) List of database contents
      (C) List of variables used in database file
      (D) None of the above
1020. A field that uniquely identifies a record is
      called a
      (A) Main field (B) Header
      (C) Key field (D) None of above
1021. Corrupted index file is corrected using
      (A) Modifyindex (B) Recreateindex
      (C) Reindex (D) None of the above
1022. The navigation buttons enable you to
      (A) move from record to record in a table or
      form
      (B) move from page to page in report
      (C) (A) and (B) both
      (D) None of the above
1023. Different levels of access are assigned to
      personnel records in the health and fitness
      gym. Only the system manager is able to
      create delete or edit records. Certain other
      personnel are allowed to view all the records,
      whereas others are not permitted to view
      complete records. The levels of access are
      controlled by
      (A) Password (B) User id’s
      (C) Status (D) None of the above
1024. You can switch back and forth between
      design and datasheet view by clicking the
      (A) queries object tab
      (B) switch command on the view menu
      (C) view button
      (D) select query title bar
1025. The table wizard
      (A) Quickly creates a default report
      (B) Displays a subset of the data in a
      database
      (C) Contains sample tables and fields you
      can use to create a table
      (D) Automatically edits your data as you
      enter it
1026. The names, address, and account balance
      of all of your customers, select the best fit for
      answer
      (A) record (B) file
      (C) database (D) key field
1027. An integrated collection of all of the data
      about your customers. Select the best fit for
      answer
      (A) Record (B) File
      (C) Database (D) Key field
1028. An identification field in a record. Select the
      best fit for answer
      (A) Record (B) File
      (C) Database (D) Key field
1029. What is part of database that holds all of the
      information about one item or subject?
      (A) Record (B) File
      (C) Query (D) Chart
1030. What is a stored question about information
      in a database?
      (A) Record (B) Field
      (C) Report (D) Query
1031. RDBMS stands for
      (A) Relational Database Management
      System
      (B) Relation Data Module System
      (C) Right Data Base Management System
      (D) None of the above
1032. Pack command is used to
      (A) Remove records permanently
      (B) Remove records temporarily
      (C) Restore records permanently
      (D) Restore records temporarily
1033. Modules are
      (A) selection of commands used to
      automate repetitive tasks
      (B) programs written in Visual C++
      (C) Object tabs
      (D) Group of records
      M.C.Qs. on Computer | 139
1034. APPEND command is used to
      (A) Add record to the end of active database
      file and starts full screen data entry
      (B) Add Record to the start of active
      database file
      (C) Add record to the start of active database
      file and starts full screen data entry
      (D) Add record to the end of database file
1035. Append from command is used to
      (A) Add records from information in an array
      (B) Adds records from a file
      (C) Add records from a variable
      (D) Add records from stock
1036. Examples of centralized multi-user
      databases are
      (A) Barclays’ Bank customer accounts
      (B) Supermarket stock control, organ donor
      database, client database
      (C) Airline reservations and other national
      global booking systems
      (D) None of above
1037. New record is added using
      (A) Append record from browse menu
      (B) Append record into from browse menu
      (C) Add record from edit menu
      (D) All of above
1038. When a customer makes an online hotel
      booking, the database is updated in
      (A) Batch mode (B) Pseudo real-time
      (C) One month (D) All of above
1039. A database that contains tables linked by
      common fields is called a
      (A) Centralized database
      (B) Flat file database
      (C) Relational database
      (D) None of above
1040. The use of integrated collections of database
      records and files for data storage and
      processing. The best fit for answer:
      (A) Database management approach
      (B) DBMS uses
      (C) Database administrator
      (D) Query language
1041. DBMS allows you to create, interrogate, and
      maintain a database, create reports, and
      develop application programs, select the
      best fit answer
      (A) Database management approach
      (B) DBBMS uses
      (C) Database administrator
      (D) Query language
1042. A specialist in charge of the database of an
      organization select the best fit for answer
      (A) Database management approach
      (B) DBMS uses
      (C) Database administrator
      (D) Query language
1043. This DBMS feature allows users to easily
      interrogate a database. Select the best fit for
      answer
      (A) Database management approach
      (B) DBMS uses
      (C) Database administrator
      (D) Query language
1044. The ….. presents data in a way similar to an
      excel spreadsheet
      (A) Datasheet view (B) Design view
      (C) Print preview (D) Layout preview
1045. It Is used to build and modify database
      objects and also to create new queries
      (A) Datasheet view (B) Design view
      (C) Print preview (D) Layout preview
1046. It shows the appearance and layout of a
      report, table or form in order to confirm what
      will be printed.
      (A) Datasheet view (B) Design view
      (C) Print preview (D) Layout preview
1047. It examines a small portion or sample of your
      data in a report before printing it.
      (A) Datasheet view (B) Design view
      (C) Print preview (D) Layout preview
1048. A report form
      (A) Appears on the computer monitor during
      data entry
      (B) Is used during report generation to
      format data
      (C) Both (A) and (B)
      (D) All of above
1049. Which of the following columns can not be
      found in the macro design window?
      (A) Arguments column
      (B) Comment column
      (C) Conditions column
      (D) Actions column
1050. The ascending order of a data hierarchy ios:
      (A) Bit, byte, field, record, file, database
      (B) Bit, byte, record, field, file, database
      (C) Byte, bit, field, record, file, database
      (D) Byte, bit, record, field, file, database
      140 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
1051. A good query system
      (A) Can accept English language
      commands
      (B) Allows non-programmers to access
      information stored in a database
      (C) Can be accessed only by data prssing
      professionals
      (D) Both (A) and (B)
1052. How do you freeze a field a column or field in
      Microsoft Access?
      (A) Click anywhere in the column and select
      Edit>Freeze Column form the menu
      (B) Place an ice cube in the column
      (C) Click anywhere in the column and click
      the freeze button on the toolbar
      (D) Right click the column and select freeze
      columns from the shortcut menu
1053. Within Table Datasheet view, how can you
      display associated records from another
      table?
      (A) Click the expand indicator (+) next to a
      record
      (B) Double click the record.
      (C) Apply the filter by form command
      (D) None of the above
1054. Which of the following is not a command to
      find specific word or phrases in a database?
      (A) Click the find button on the toolbar
      (B) Click the find button on the record
      navigation button area
      (C) Press Ctrl+F
      (D) Select Edit>Find from the menu.
1055. One of the type libraries that you can use to
      programmatically connect to Microsoft
      Access data is
      (A) Collaborative Data Objects
      (B) ActiveX Data Objects
      (C) Dynamic Data Interfaces
      (D) None of the above
1056. The data in a Pivot Table report is categorized
      using
      (A) Column headings
      (B) Items from the Pivot Table field list
      (C) Header rows
      (D) All of above
1057. Records are deleted using
      (A) DELETE command followed by pack
      (B) DELETE command without pack
      (C) DELETE command followed by zap
      (D) DELETE command without zap
1058. You can enter data in a table in
      (A) design view (B) datasheet view
      (C) format view (D) None of the above
1059. Creating a data file means
      (A) Designing base and defining the
      structure of the database
      (B) Getting the information about database
      (C) Selecting data from database
      (D) Deleting data from database
1060. In a large DBMS
      (A) each user can “see” only a small part of
      the entire database
      (B) each user can access every
      subschema
      (C) each subschema contains every field
      in the logical schema
      (D) none of the above is true
1061. You want to keep track of addresses, phone
      numbers, parent/guardian names as well
      as class attendance, average and grades.
      Every so often you want to send reports home
      that select failing grades and excessive
      absences. The following of the Microsoft
      Office suit used in this course is best suited
      for this kind of information
      (A) Excel (B) PowerPoint
      (C) Access (D) Word
1062. Each individual data items of record is called a
      (A) Field (B) Data type
      (C) Comment (D) All of the above
1063. A large collections of files are called
      (A) Fields (B) Records
      (C) Databases (D) File system
1064. Memo field in database file is used to
      (A) Store lengthy number
      (B) Store images
      (C) Store audio files
      (D) Store long textual information
1065. Applications that rely on databases are
      (A) Supermarket stock control, theater
      bookings and payroll
      (B) Accounts, online banking, PowerPoint
      presentations
      (C) Internet shopping, robotics, computer
      games
      (D) None of above
1066. Which of the following is not a Access
      database object ?
      (A) table (B) form
      (C) query (D) datasheet
1067. Data owners must protect their data against
      corruption or loss. One sensible method to
      achieving this is to
      (A) Take regular backups
      (B) Keep a hardcopy printout of all data
      (C) Keep fingers crossed at all times
      (D) None of above
      M.C.Qs. on Computer | 141
1068. Facilities offered by databases are
      (A) The ability to store a large amount of
      data in a structured format, easy update,
      sort, query, production of reports
      (B) Easy editing, spell check, perform
      calculations, library of mathematical
      functions, replication
      (C) The ability to rotate images, copy and
      paste, fill scale
      (D) None of above
1069. Users who store data about real people for
      marketing purposes must register the data
      and its potential use with
      (A) The computer misuse controller
      (B) The data protection controller
      (C) HM customs and excise
      (D) None of above
1070. When you double click a query object, you
      open
      (A) The object in design view
      (B) The object in print preview
      (C) The result of the query
      (D) The underlying table on which the query
      is based
1071. Checks that are added to databases to detect
      unsuitable data on inpt are called
      (A) validation (B) verification
      (C) vegetation (D) none of above
1072. Auto Report allows you to
      (A) View a subset of your data
      (B) Create a simple report
      (C) Create a data entry form
      (D) Enter records
1073. Auto Form allows you to
      (A) View a subset of your data
      (B) Create a simple report
      (C) Create a data entry form
      (D) Enter records
1074. The asterisk (*) is sometimes used in
      database queries. This character is then
      called a
      (A) Wildcard (B) Dummy
      (C) Ditto (D) All of the above
1075. When performing a look-up operation using
      a form
      (A) You enter the search value into the form
      (B) You look at each form sequentially until
      you see the one you want
      (C) You type the key in an entry line, and the
      correct form is displayed
      (D) All of the above
1076. Which custom date format displays the
      numeric day of the year when a date is
      entered?
      (A) YY (B) YYYY
      (C) Y (D) All of above
1077. When you save an Access project, what file
      format do you use?
      (A) .adp (B) .xm.
      (C) .mdb (D) All of above
1078. Which of the following criterion would find
      records whose personality field does not
      equal “Nice”?
      (A) <>Nice (B) NOT Nice
      (C) <>”Nice” (D) IS NOT Nice
1079. What is the maximum character field size
      you can set for a field that has a text data
      type?
      (A) 64 (B) 255
      (C) 512 (D) All of above
1080. Which of the following fields would not make
      a suitable primary key ?
      (A) A date field
      (B) An invoice number
      (C) An autoNumber field
      (D) A customer’s social security number
1081. Auto reports can contain each of the
      following elements except
      (A) A detail section (B) A page footer
      (C) A group header (D) All of the above
1082. What is the abbreviation used for a software
      package that permits the user to create,
      retrieve and maintain records in a database?
      (A) DASD (B) FMS
      (C) EMMS (D) DBMS
1083. A repository for data, usually covering some
      specific topic is called
      (A) Data acquisition (B)Data bank
      (C) Real time (D) Database
1084. A notation for defining the form and structure
      of data is known as
      (A) Data description language
      (B) Binary language
      (C) Data channels
      (D) Data definition language
1085. A data item, which is not broken down into
      smaller units, is
      (A) Data element
      (B) Elementary data item
      (C) Data entry
      (D) Database management
1086. Which of the following terms refers to the
      degree to which data in database system
      are accurate and correct?
      (A) Data security (B) Data validaity
      (C) Data independence (D) Data integrity
1087. A repository for data, usually covering specific
      topic is
      (A) Database (B) Data requisition
      (C) Data bank (D) Data collection
      142 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
1088. A set of programs that handle firm’s data
      base responsibilities is called a
      (A) Database Management System (DBMS)
      (B) Database Processing System (DBPS)
      (C) Data Management System (DMS)
      (D) All of above
1089. Which of the following is not a relational
      database?
      (A) dBase IV (B) 4th Dimension
      (C) FoxPro (D) Reflex
1090. Which is used to provide the sight
      information to the right person at the right
      time for proper decision making ?
      (A) DBMS (B) MIS
      (C) ISO (D) PSO
1091. Dbase-III was developed by
      (A) Dec (B) IBM
      (C) Ashton-tate (D) All of the above
1092. Which of the following database objects asks
      a question of information in a database and
      then displays the result?
      (A) Tables (B) Reports
      (C) Queries (D) Forms
1093. What data type should you choose for a zip
      code field in a table?
      (A) Text (B) Number
      (C) Memo (D) All of above
1094. A list consists of last names, first names,
      address and pin codes if all people in the
      list have the same last and the same pin
      code, a useful key would be
      (A) The pin code
      (B) The last name
      (C) A compound key consisting of the first
      name and the last name
      (D) All of the above
1095. What happens when you add the asterisk (()
      from any field list ot a query?
      (A) The table will not include any fields from
      the table
      (B) The query sorts the table’s record in the
      order you specify
      (C) The query will include every field from
      the table*
      (D) The query uses the records from the
      table without displaying them
1096. The modify operation is likely to be done after
      (A) delete (B) look up
      (C) insert (D) all of above
1097. The criteria BETWEEN 1/1/99 and 12/31/99
      would which is proper
      (A) Display records between the dates 1/2/
      99 and 1/1/00
      (B) Display records between the dates 1/1/
      99 and 12/31/99
      (C) Display records whose dates equaled
      1/1/99 or 12/31/99
      (D) All of the above
1098. DDP stands for
      (A) Distributed Double Processing
      (B) Double Decimal Processing
      (C) Distributed Data Programming
      (D) Distributed Data Processing
1099. To see sales amount figures totaled, into
      which drop area would you drag that field?
      (A) Drop column fields here
      (B) Drop row fields here
      (C) Drop data items here
      (D) None of the above
1100. Which access feature do you use to develop
      applications that host access data on the
      web?
      (A) Dynamic web data
      (B) Data access pates
      (C) Html data pages
      (D) None of the above
1101. What is the common name for a column of
      data within an Access table?
      (A) Field (B) Record
      (C) Row (D) None of the above
1102. A data structure consisting of several fields,
      some or all of which are instances of the
      same data structure, is called
      (A) Field (B) Bead
      (C) Database (D) Data collection
1103. A group of characters used to identiry a given
      low level instruction is
      (A) File (B) Record
      (C) Key field (D) Label
1104. One or more characters used to identify a
      data field in a computer program is
      (A) File name (B) Database
      (C) Label (D) Group
1105. In Form view, which command displays
      records alphabetically?
      (A) Find (B) Advanced Filter/Sort
      (C) Sort (D) All of the above
1106. Where do report and forms get their
      information form?
      (A) Forms (B) Modules
      (C) Tables (D) Queries
1107. The number of logical records in a physical
      record is
      (A) group (B) blocking factor
      (C) sector (D) field
1108. A top to bottom relationship among the items
      in a database is established by a
      (A) Hierarchical schema
      (B) Network Schema
      (C) Relational schema
      (D) All of the above
      M.C.Qs. on Computer | 143
1109. A command that lets you cange one or more
      fields in a record is
      (A) Insert (B) Modify
      (C) Look up (D) All of the above
1110. A logical schema
      (A) Is the entire database
      (B) Is a standard way of organizing
      information into accessible parts
      (C) Describes how data is actually stored
      on disk
      (D) All of the above
1111. What is the purpose of the page field on a
      pivot table report?
      (A) It creates a new page for each type of
      data
      (B) It allows the data within the the Pivot
      Table report to be filtered
      (C) It displays a title for the Pivot Table report
      (D) None of the above
1112. What does the Special Effect button on the
      formatting toolbar do?
      (A) It lets you add animation to your forms
      and reports to make them more
      entertaining and amusing
      (B) It lets you select a transitional effect for
      how a form opens and closes.
      (C) It applies a 30d effect to a selected
      control
      (D) None of these
1113. Pivot Table report data must meet which of
      the following criteria?
      (A) It must be in tabular form, have unique
      column labels, and each row must
      represent a unique piece of data
      (B) Any dates should be formatted with the
      data format and blank rows or columns
      should be removed
      (C) It must be in tabular form, have unique
      column lagels, and all rows must be
      sorted
      (D) Both (A) and (B)
1114. Customers, Orders. What’s their best
      relationship?
      (A) Many-to-many (B) One-to-one
      (C) One-to-many (D) All of the above
1115. Which control does access use to link data
      access page components to access data?
      (A) Microsoft Dynamic Data Control
      (B) Microsoft Data Connection Control
      (C) Microsoft Office Data Source Control
      (D) None of the above
1116. Which program do you use to edit code for
      data access pages?
      (A) Microsoft script editor
      (B) Microsoft code editor
      (C) Microsoft data access pages editor
      (D) None of above
1117. The way a particular application views the
      data from the database that the applicaton
      uses is a
      (A) Module (B) Relational model
      (C) Schema (D) Sub-schema
1118. Which of the following is a database
      management system?
      (A) Ms-Word (B) Lotus 1-2-3
      (C) Oracle (D) None of above
1119. What is the corresponding text for the <#1/1/
      95# validation rule setting?
      (A) Neter a value less or more than 1,195
      (B) Value must be less than 95 characters
      (C) Enter a date before 1995
      (D) All of above
1120. What is the name of the Visual Basic Editor
      utility that allows you to view the Microsoft
      Access type library’s available objects and
      members?
      (A) Object Viewer (B) Object Browser
      (C) Type Library Spy (D) None of above
1121. A computer language for informing the DBMS
      regarding the data structure used is
      (A) PASCAL (B) DDL
      (C) PROLOG (D) FORTRAN
1122. Which of the following is not a data type ?
      (A) Picture/graphic (B) Data/time
      (C) Texst (D) Number
1123. The executive responsible for the data
      processing function in an organization is
      (A) PM (B) DBMS
      (C) DP (D) DPM
1124. Which of the following is NOT a type of
      Microsoft Access database object?
      (A) Queries (B) Workbooks
      (C) Forms (D) Tables
1125. A file containing relatively permanent data is
      (A) Random file (B) Transaction file
      (C) Master file (D) Sequential file
1126. The complete picture of data stored in
      database is known as
      (A) Record (B) Scheme
      (C) System flowchart (D) DBMS
1127. A subset of characters within a data field is
      known as
      (A) Record (B) File
      (C) Data string (D) Byte
1128. Data items groped together for storage
      purposes are called a
      (A) Record (B) Title
      (C) List (D) string
1129. Which of the following terms does not
      describe a database structure used by a
      DBMS to link data from several files?
      (A) Relational (B) Structural
      (C) Network (D) All of the above
      144 | M.C.Qs. on Computer
1130. In a relational schema, each tuple is divided
      into fields called
      (A) Relations (B) Domains
      (C) Queries (D) All of the above
1131. How do you filter by selection?
      (A) Right click the field value and select filter
      by selection from the shortcut menu
      (B) Find and double click the value on which
      you want to base the filter
      (C) Find and select the value on which you
      want to base the filter and select
      tools>filter by selection from the menu
      (D) None of the above
1132. What is a fast way to adjust the width of a
      column?
      (A) Right click the left side of the column
      heading
      (B) Double click the left side of the column
      heading
      (C) Double click the right side of the column
      heading
      (D) Select tools>adjust column width from
      the menu
1133. What are the columns in a Microsoft Access
      table called?
      (A) Rows (B) Fields
      (C) Cells (D) Records
1134. How do you update Pivot Table report data
      after changes are made to the source data?
      (A) Save your changes, close the workbook,
      and then reopen it.
      (B) Select the Pivot Table worksheet and
      press F9 on the keyboard
      (C) Click the report, and on the Pivot Table
      toolbar, click the refresh data button
      (D) All of the above
1135. In access, the best types of queries to use
      for data analysis are:
      (A) Select queries (B) Parameter queries
      (C) Action queries (D) All of the above
1136. How can you add a table to the relationship
      window?
      (A) Select Tools>Add table from the menu
      (B) Select the table from the table list on the
      toolbar
      (D) Click the show table button on the
      toolbar
      (D) Select Edit>Add table from the menu
1137. What is the first step in creating a form or
      report with the form wizard or report wizard?
      (A) Selecting the fields that you want to
      appear in the form or report
      (B) Selecting the underlying table or query
      on which you want to base the form or
      report
      (C) Reading several screens of mostly
      useless information and clicking next
      (D) Selecting how the form or report should
      be formatted
1138. Which action will optimize your database
      performance?
      (A) Set the record set type to Snapshot
      (B) Use the compact and repair database
      tool
      (C) Create a replica of the database
      (D) All of the above
1139. The arranging of data in a logical sequence
      is called
      (A) Sorting (B) Classifying
      (C) Reproducing (D) Summarizing
1140. If a piece of data is stored in two places in
      the database, then a
      (A) Storage space is wasted
      (B) Changing the data is one spot will cause
      data inconsistency
      (C) It can be more easily accessed
      (D) Both (A) and (B)
1141. A relational database management
      (RDBMS) package manages data in more
      than one file at once. How does it organize
      these file? As
      (A) Tables (B) Relations
      (C) Tuple (D) Both (A) and (B)
      Answer Sheet
1142. (A) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (B)
1143. (A) 7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (D)
1144. (A) 12. (B) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (A)
1145. (C) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (C)
1146. (C) 22. (D) 23. (A) 24. (D) 25. (D)
1147. (D) 27. (C) 28. (A) 29. (C) 30. (C)
1148. (A) 32. (D) 33. (A) 34. (D) 35. (C)
1149. (C) 37. (A) 38. (C) 39. (C) 40. (C)
1150. (A) 42. (C) 43. (D) 44. (D) 45. (B)
1151. (C) 47. (A) 48. (D) 49. (A) 50. (A)
1152. (A) 52. (A) 53. (A) 54. (C) 55. (A)
1153. (B) 57. (C) 58. (D) 59. (D) 60. (B)
1154. (C) 62. (C) 63. (C) 64. (B) 65. (D)
1155. (B) 67. (B) 68. (D) 69. (B) 70. (D)
1156. (A) 72. (B) 73. (B) 74. (B) 75. (A)
1157. (C) 77. (A) 78. (A) 79. (C) 80. (B)
1158. (B) 82. (D) 83. (A) 84. (D) 85. (A)
1159. (A) 87. (B) 88. (B) 89. (A) 90. (B)
1160. (B) 92. (A) 93. (D) 94. (C) 95. (A)
1161. (C) 97. (B) 98. (A) 99. (D) 100. (D)
1162. (B) 102. (D) 103. (B) 104. (D) 105. (C)
1163. (D) 107. (D) 108. (B) 109. (C) 110. (C)
1164. (A) 112. (C) 113. (C) 114. (B) 115. (B)
1165. (D) 117. (C) 118. (B) 119. (A) 120. (B)
1166. (D) 122. (C) 123. (C) 124. (C) 125. (D)
1167. (A) 127. (B) 128. (B) 129. (B) 130. (C)
1168. (D) 132. (C) 133. (C) 134. (A) 135. (D)
1169. (C) 137. (A) 138. (B) 139. (B) 140. (A)
1170. (B) 142. (B) 143. (C) 144. (B) 145. (C)
1171. (A) 147. (B) 148. (B) 149. (A) 150. (C)
1172. (B) 152. (C) 153. (A) 154. (B) 155. (B)
1173. (B) 157. (A) 158. (D) 159. (D)
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